Spo Quiz #7
Settings
-
+
90% or higher!
- 1.Measures an officer can take to control contamination at a crime scene (Unit 11-1)
- A.
Wear latex/nitrile gloves
- B.
Do not talk over evidence
- C.
Do not touch your face, hair, cell phone. Especially when dealing with DNA evidence
- D.
All Answers
- 2.Select the answer which states the two different types of evidence characteristics.
- A.
Evidentiary characteristics and circumstantial characteristics
- B.
Class characteristics and individual characteristics
- C.
Physical characteristics and non-physical characteristics
- D.
Similar characteristics and dissimilar characteristics
- 3.Define Class characteristics
- A.
Traits or characteristics of evidence that allow the item to be compared with a group
- B.
Traits or characteristics of an item of evidence that allows the item to be compared with a specific object or person
- C.
Traits or characteristics of an item of evidence that allows the item to be classified into the appropriate criminal offense
- D.
None
- 4.To maintain chain of custody, specific information is required on the evidence tag. Choose the information which must be shown on each evidence tag.
- A.
A. Date recovered and time recovered
- B.
B. Exact location of recovery and item number
- C.
C. Officers assignment and precinct number
- D.
D. Weather condition and any hazardous conditions associated with item
- E.
Both "A" and "B" are correct
- 5.The Smith System of driving is defined as… An approach to driving that includes a _____ step system in which you must practice all steps until they become routine. Choose the answer which states the correct number of steps involved in the Smith System. (Unit 5-1)
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
- 6.Select the answer which correctly states steps involved in the Smith System of driving.
- A.
A. Keep your eyes moving
- B.
B. Drive appropriately according to conditions
- C.
C. Leave yourself an out
- D.
"A" and "B" are correct
- E.
"A" and "C" are correct
- 7.Choose the answer which states, according to the Ohio Peace Officers Training Commission, the importance of safety belts and other occupant protection devices.
- A.
Better vehicle control thereby reducing the chance of becoming involved in a collision
- B.
Role model to the community
- C.
Less chance of injury or death if involved in a collision while using a properly adjusted vehicle restraint system
- D.
All answers
- 8.There are three types or dynamics of steering; one dynamic is “counter steering”. What are the other dynamics of steering?
- A.
A. Shuffle steering
- B.
B. Over steering
- C.
C. Under steering
- D.
"A" and "B" are correct
- E.
"B" and "C" are correct
- 9.Read the following definition and match the answer that goes with it. “Usually caused by excessive speed. The vehicle will have a tendency to continue in a straight line and resist turning due to a loss of traction with the front tires”.
- A.
Under steering
- B.
Over steering
- C.
Counter steering
- D.
Failure to steer
- 10.According to Ohio Peace Officers Training Commission there are three acceptable hand movements for steering. Select the answer which is NOT one of the three acceptable hand movements.
- A.
Shuffle steer
- B.
Pull-push-slide
- C.
Hand over Hand
- D.
Evasive Steering
- 11.What factor may affect the performance or efficiency of your brakes while driving?
- A.
Brake fade
- B.
Weight transfer
- C.
Tire condition
- D.
Road surface
- E.
All Answers
- 12.An officer responding to an emergency should try to select a route, which will offer which of the following?
- A.
Approaches to intersections with acceptable line-of-sight and legal right-of-way
- B.
The route with the least amount of steering and speed adjustment
- C.
The quickest and most direct route
- D.
The route which is the widest and has available escape paths to the sides
- E.
All Answers
- 13.The following list of actions best describes which police activity? - Allow for others to adjust to the law enforcement vehicle's approach -Adjust your speed so that others see and hear the emergency warning device - Look for additional emergency response vehicles - Change siren pattern to attract attention with a different sound
- A.
Ways to reduce injury or property damage when a collision is imminent
- B.
Factors to be considered during pursuit driving
- C.
Factors to consider when clearing intersections
- D.
Factors to consider when determining to initiate a vehicle pursuit
- 14.Select the answer which correctly states the way(s) to reduce injury or property damage when a collision is imminent.
- A.
A. Try to strike the object on an angle, thus deflecting some of the impact forces.
- B.
B. Steer and accelerate into or through the nearest clear path to avoid direct impact
- C.
C. If possible, look through the collision for a clear path of travel
- D.
D. Let go of everything and sing “Jesus Take the Wheel”
- E.
"A" and "C" are correct
- 15.The decision whether to continue or discontinue a pursuit is influenced by many factors, but the primary consideration is always…
- A.
The type of offense
- B.
The safety of the public and yourself
- C.
The division policy or directive
- D.
Based totally on the extent of training you have received
- 16.According to the Ohio Peace Officers Training Commission, there are several alternatives to continuing a pursuit. Select the option which is NOT one of those valid alternatives.
- A.
Aircraft involvement
- B.
Investigate later
- C.
Suspect may come to you
- D.
GPS tracking
- E.
Termination technique with additional training, (ex. Spikes, PIT, Stop Sticks etc.)
- 17.Choose the answer which states the factor(s) to consider when determining whether to initiate a vehicle pursuit.
- A.
Legal authority and agency policy
- B.
Environmental factors
- C.
Population conditions
- D.
Time of day and day of the week
- E.
All Answers
- 18.Choose the answer which is NOT an officer’s priority in protecting the scene of a crash. (Unit 10-4)
- A.
Protect the crash victims and the first responders
- B.
Wear your high visibility safety vest when directing traffic or investigating crashes
- C.
Clear the scene of any debris and obstacles for responding EMS units
- D.
Check for injuries
- 19.Select the answer which is one of the conditions required for a situation to be classified as a motor vehicle traffic accident.
- A.
The incident includes one or more occurrences of injury or damage.
- B.
The incident involved one or more motor vehicles.
- C.
At least one motor vehicle was in-transport.
- D.
The unstabilized situation originated on a traffic way or the injury or the damage occurred on a traffic way.
- E.
All Answers
- 20.Officers should ensure his/her investigation and report covers all the sequence of events in a traffic collision. Select the answer which is NOT one of the required event stages.
- A.
The series of events in sequence for each vehicle/unit
- B.
The first reactive action of the non-at-fault unit
- C.
Document what the traffic unit did or what it hit, not what the unit is
- D.
If the number of events exceeds six, include the first harmful event and the most harmful event, then list the next four most relevant events, giving preference to other harmful events
- 21.Choose the answer which defines Contact Damage.
- A.
Damage caused by direct contact with some object which is not a part of the vehicle.
- B.
Occurs when part of the vehicle is displaced.
- C.
All Answers
- D.
None
- 22.Select the answer which defines Induced Damage.
- A.
Damage caused by direct contact with some object which is not a part of the vehicle.
- B.
Occurs when part of the vehicle is displaced.
- C.
All Answers
- D.
None
- 23.Choose the answer which is NOT evidence that needs to be documented with photographs at a traffic collision.
- A.
Surface marks on the roadway.
- B.
The area of impact.
- C.
Final rest.
- D.
The diagram of the accident scene for court.
- E.
All vehicle damage.
- 24.What are three of the four reasons for tracing stolen property? (Unit 11-5)
- A.
May reveal the original manufacturer; May reveal perpetrator; May reveal other crimes.
- B.
May reveal perpetrator; May reveal other investigative leads; May reveal other crimes.
- C.
May reveal original owner; May reveal Modus Operandi; May reveal other crimes.
- D.
May reveal Habeus Corpus; May reveal perpetrator; May reveal Modus Operandi.
- 25.Select the answer, which lists five of the ten sources of information for tracing stolen property.
- A.
Pawn shop records; Auto dealers; Owner/Victims; Retailers; Surrounding jurisdictions.
- B.
Witnesses; Leads/NCIC; Flea markets; Teletype; Department personnel.
- C.
Suspects; Department records and personnel; Junk yard/salvage operations; Informants; Owners/Victims.
- D.
Officers; Department records and personnel; Victims; Local media/reporters; Pawn shop records.
- 26.Choose the answer, which lists three of the five ways to establish the value of stolen property.
- A.
Retailers; Ohio Revised Code; Owner/Victim.
- B.
Department policy; Bank loan departments; Insurance Companies.
- C.
Property broker; Retailers; Bank loan departments.
- D.
Car dealers; Insurance adjusters; Owner/Victim.
- 27.There are different methods of lineups used by police. One type of lineup is the photo lineup; select the answer which correctly lists another method(s) of lineups. (U11-11)
- A.
A. Sequential lineup
- B.
B. Show up
- C.
C. Live lineup
- D.
D. Simultaneous lineup
- E.
"B" and "C" are correct
- F.
"A" and "B" are correct
- 28.What is the proper placement of a tourniquet on an injured extremity? (Unit 7-2)
- A.
On the actual wound area
- B.
Near the actual wound area
- C.
Lower on the injured extremity
- D.
As high as possible on the injured extremity
- 29.What is the important information that must be written on the tourniquet or victims forehead, immediately after the tourniquet is applied?
- A.
Date only
- B.
Time only
- C.
Date and time
- D.
Time and any pertinent medical issues/information
- 30.There are three steps for junctional hemorrhage control. Step #2 is to hold direct pressure on the wound for a minimum of three minutes, if possible. Step #3 is to apply a trauma dressing. Select the answer, which correctly lists Step#1.
- A.
Pack the wound with gauze or hemostatic gauze
- B.
Remove loose clothing or any obstructions around the wound
- C.
Wipe fluids (e.g., blood, sweat) off the area
- D.
Verbally reassure and calm the victim
- 31.The Nasopharyngeal Airway apparatus is designed to secure an open airway. In order for this to occur where is the preferred placement of the NPA (Nasopharyngeal Airway)?
- A.
The victims mouth
- B.
The victims left nostril
- C.
The victims right nostril
- D.
Any of the answers
- 32.There are four steps for sealing a chest wound. Select the answer which is NOT one of those steps.
- A.
Wipe fluids (e.g., blood, sweat) off the area
- B.
Remove any obstructions or loose clothing from the area
- C.
Peel off adhesive backing from the chest seal
- D.
Center the seal over the wound; if valve is present, place valve over the middle of wound
- E.
Secure with tape, if available
- 33.In the State of Ohio, Video Lottery Terminals (VLT) located at Racinos are an example of illegal or legal gambling? (Unit 11-12)
- A.
Legal
- B.
Illegal
- C.
There are no such things as Racinos
- D.
There are no such things as Video lottery terminals
- 34.Licensed casino games which are regulated by the Ohio Casino Control Commission (OCCC), Licensed bingo which is regulated by the Ohio Attorney General (OAG), and Licensed horse racing which is regulated by the Ohio State Racing Commission are all examples of …
- A.
Legal gambling
- B.
Illegal gambling
- C.
None of the above
- D.
Traditional gambling
- 35.Any gambling that is required to be licensed or regulated by the State of Ohio that is being conducted without that license or regulation is defined as …
- A.
Operating a gaming house
- B.
Operating a game for profit
- C.
Illegal gambling
- D.
Legal gambling
- 36.Mobile and fixed/stationary surveillance are two of the three surveillance methods used by law enforcement officers. Select the answer, which lists the third type of surveillance method used by police. (Unit 11-14)
- A.
Vehicle surveillance
- B.
Air surveillance
- C.
Electronic surveillance
- D.
Covert
- 37.According to the Ohio Peace Officer s Training Commission law enforcement personnel should conduct surveillance to…
- A.
Obtain sufficient evidence in order to make an arrest or to secure a search warrant
- B.
Determine locations and drop points of illegal or stolen goods
- C.
Verify reliability of information, a tip, or complaint received
- D.
Determine residences and hangouts of the surveillance target
- E.
All Answers
- 38.Select the answer, which is NOT a mobile surveillance technique.
- A.
Bait and switch
- B.
Leapfrog
- C.
Shadowing
- D.
Paralleling
- E.
Progressive
- 39.It is important to understand the difference between an interview and an interrogation as it relates to police work. Select the answer which correctly defines what an interview is. (Unit 11-15)
- A.
The formal, systematic, or intensive questioning by the police of a person arrested or suspected of committing a crime
- B.
The questioning of a victim, witness, or other person with information related to an incident or a case
- C.
To ask questions of a person, to seek answers or information that the person questioned considers personal or secret.
- D.
A meeting at which information is obtained from a person
- 40.Select the answer which correctly defines what an interrogation is.
- A.
The formal, systematic, or intensive questioning by the police of a person arrested or suspected of committing a crime
- B.
The questioning of a victim, witness, or other person with information related to an incident or a case
- C.
To ask questions of a person, to seek answers or information that the person questioned considers personal or secret.
- D.
A meeting at which information is obtained from a person
- 41.It is important for an interviewer to develop a rapport with the subject during an interview. Choose the answer(s), which, according to the OPOTC curriculum, state how an officer can gain rapport with the subject being interviewed.
- A.
Allow the subject the ability to pick the interview location
- B.
Present the subject with a list or itinerary of questions they can review prior to the interview
- C.
Ask introductory/ non-threatening questions
- D.
All Answers
- 42.Choose the answer(s), which correctly describe the purpose of an interrogation.
- A.
To obtain information relevant to an investigation
- B.
To discover additional evidence relevant to an investigation or establish innocence
- C.
To obtain accurate and truthful information which may or may not lead to a confession or an admission
- D.
All Answers
- 43.According to the OPOTC curriculum, there are five factors to consider in determining if an individual is deemed in custody. Select the answer(s) which is one of those five factors.
- A.
A. The attitude of the officers toward the person being questioned
- B.
B. The number of suspects present
- C.
C. The number of officers present
- D.
D. The length of time
- E.
"A" and "C" are correct
- 44.Select the answer, which states the two conditions for an officer to read the Miranda warning to a suspect.
- A.
A. The suspect is detained AND being questioned /interrogated
- B.
B. The suspect is in custody AND being questioned /interrogated
- C.
"A" and "B" are correct
- D.
None
- 45.What is the standard against which a waiver will be judged when an accused waives his/her Miranda rights?
- A.
The warning and waiver have been given and that the statements were made in knowingly, voluntarily and in writing
- B.
The warning and waiver have been given and that the statements were made knowingly, voluntarily, and witnessed by another officer
- C.
The warning and waiver have been given and that the statements were made in writing and witnessed by another officer
- D.
The warning and waiver have been given and that the statements were made knowingly, voluntarily, and intelligently
- 46.If a confession is derived immediately from an unlawful arrest or illegal search, the confession is tainted and it may not be used against a suspect based on what principle?
- A.
False arrest
- B.
Fruits of the poisonous tree
- C.
Miranda
- D.
None
- 47.Police can further question a suspect who has previously been advised of his/her Miranda rights if two things occur. First the officer again advises the suspect of the Miranda rights and the suspect waives those rights and …
- A.
The officer expressly initiates the contact with the suspect
- B.
The legal counsel agrees to the suspect’s waiving of his/her rights
- C.
The suspect expressly initiates the contact with the officer
- D.
None
- 48.If there is a break in custody for interrogation purposes, police may initiate further questioning of a suspect within ________ days after release from custody
- A.
2
- B.
7
- C.
14
- D.
21
- 49.Statements elicited from a defendant, as well as real evidence resulting from such statements, may be used in evidence even if the officers do not recite the Miranda warning before asking questions if the officers’ safety or the safety of others is in jeopardy. What is the name of the above ruling?
- A.
The exigent circumstances exception to the Miranda warning
- B.
The Public safety exception to the Miranda warning
- C.
The spontaneous utterance exception to the Miranda warning
- D.
The evidentiary protection exception to the Miranda warning
- 50.Once a suspect has been arraigned and has claimed counsel at the arraignment or preliminary hearing, the suspect may waive counsel’s presence and provide officers with a statement pursuant to a valid waiver of Miranda
- A.
True
- B.
False
Back to top