(unit Review Exercises)

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3m051a Volume 2: Food (unit Review Exercises)

This quiz was created on 09JUN2010 from the following CDC volume: AFSC 3M051 3M051A 02 0807 EDIT CODE 04 Check the back cover of your volume to ensure that the above information matches yours. Consider all choices carefully, and select the best answer to each question. You must score a 90% or above on this exam to take your actual CDCs.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) Enlisted members receiving the meal portion of per diem are authorized to use the dining facility:
    • A. 

      At no charge.

    • B. 

      As cash-paying customers.

    • C. 

      At the installation commander's discretion.

    • D. 

      When the installation commander determines other facilities are not available.

  • 2. 
    (201) What are the two types of Department of Defense (DOD) meal rates?
    • A. 

      Standard and special.

    • B. 

      Standard and normal.

    • C. 

      Discount and normal.

    • D. 

      Discount and standard.

  • 3. 
    (201) Which meal type service is not available in appropriated fund (APF) dining facilities?
    • A. 

      Buffet.

    • B. 

      Holiday.

    • C. 

      A la carte.

    • D. 

      Traditional.

  • 4. 
    (202) Who can allow off-base civilians, noncombatant evacuees, and family members evacuated from other Department of Defense (DOD) installations to eat in the base dining facilities during emergencies?
    • A. 

      Food service officers.

    • B. 

      Services commanders.

    • C. 

      Installation commanders.

    • D. 

      Major command commanders.

  • 5. 
    (202) If it is not feasible to obtain signatures in the base dining facilities during emergencies, who certifies the number of meals furnished?
    • A. 

      Food service officer.

    • B. 

      Services commander.

    • C. 

      Installation commander.

    • D. 

      Mission support group commander.

  • 6. 
    (202) How many days of emergency rations are authorized units allowed to purchase?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 7. 
    (203) What is one of the biggest problems facing managers in food service facilities?
    • A. 

      Communication.

    • B. 

      Managing shifts.

    • C. 

      Lack of meetings.

    • D. 

      Training personnel.

  • 8. 
    (203) What is the most important duty a shift leader should accomplish each day?
    • A. 

      Taste testing food.

    • B. 

      Uniform inspections.

    • C. 

      Mentoring and training.

    • D. 

      On-the-job training (OJT).

  • 9. 
    (203) What is the key to proper scheduling?
    • A. 

      Setting up shifts that maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods.

    • B. 

      Placing personnel based on individual and unique skills.

    • C. 

      Helping workers resolve their personal problems.

    • D. 

      Dividing workers equally among the shifts.

  • 10. 
    (203) What should shift leaders and mangers know in order to prevent manpower shortfalls?
    • A. 

      Scheduled personnel appointments and training.

    • B. 

      Daily and specialty meals scheduled.

    • C. 

      The shifts at other dining facilities.

    • D. 

      The peak hours for serving food.

  • 11. 
    (203) How often should shift leaders document sanitation discrepancies and where should they document them?
    • A. 

      Daily on the Production Log.

    • B. 

      Weekly on the Production Log.

    • C. 

      Daily on a self-inspection checklist.

    • D. 

      Weekly on a self-inspection checklist.

  • 12. 
    (204) The operational advantages of the cyclic menu in menu planning include:
    • A. 

      Providing flexibility in menu planning.

    • B. 

      Allowing customers to plan their meals in advance.

    • C. 

      Providing managers time to devote to the customers.

    • D. 

      Allowing food service personnel additional training time.

  • 13. 
    (204) Which is not a criteria for which managers can change core menu components?
    • A. 

      Satisfy the preferences of your guests.

    • B. 

      Provide choices to accommodate religious observances.

    • C. 

      Adjust stock levels to take advantage of vendor seasonal sales.

    • D. 

      Add culturally diverse or specialty meals, or increase menu variety.

  • 14. 
    (204) In order for a menu to be good for both customers and cooks, it must be
    • A. 

      Practical and acceptable.

    • B. 

      Simple and eye appealing.

    • C. 

      Practical and cost effective.

    • D. 

      Acceptable and eye appealing.

  • 15. 
    (204) According to the corporate food service (CFS) menu preface, what is mandatory for omelets and scrambled eggs?
    • A. 

      Use fresh eggs whenever possible.

    • B. 

      Make available at least six choices.

    • C. 

      Use frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs.

    • D. 

      Omelets must be cooked to order, scramble eggs can be pre-cooked.

  • 16. 
    (204) According to the corporate food service (CFS) menu preface, when are the mandatory short order menus served?
    • A. 

      Lunch and dinner.

    • B. 

      Nightmeal and breakfast.

    • C. 

      Breakfast, lunch and dinner.

    • D. 

      Nightmeal, lunch and dinner.

  • 17. 
    (205) What does the core flight menu standards mandate?
    • A. 

      Healthy menu items with a quality packaging system.

    • B. 

      Variety of healthy items delivered by flight kitchen personnel.

    • C. 

      Choice of fast food menu items in a quality packaging system.

    • D. 

      Variety of prepackaged foods in an inexpensive packaging system.

  • 18. 
    (205) During a long flight, which meal can you serve a sandwich meal?
    • A. 

      The last meal.

    • B. 

      The first meal.

    • C. 

      Lunch and dinner.

    • D. 

      Breakfast and lunch.

  • 19. 
    (205) Within how many hours after being issued must a sandwich meal be consumed?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 20. 
    (205) The expanded flight kitchen is designed to serve meals for
    • A. 

      Personnel who can't leave the duty section due to mission requirements.

    • B. 

      Authorized personnel on the flightline.

    • C. 

      Personnel placed on quarters.

    • D. 

      Hospital personnel.

  • 21. 
    (206) What is the rating scale for each category on the Food Service Evaluation Record?
    • A. 

      Poor to excellent.

    • B. 

      Fair to outstanding.

    • C. 

      Poor to outstanding.

    • D. 

      Unsatisfactory to satisfactory.

  • 22. 
    (207) What is the first line of defense to prevent a food-borne illness?
    • A. 

      Air Force public health personnel.

    • B. 

      Maintaining good personal hygiene.

    • C. 

      Using only bacteria-free subsistence.

    • D. 

      Using sanitation solutions for cleaning.

  • 23. 
    (207) What is not one of the key principles to abide by when preparing food?
    • A. 

      Do not work with food if you have any communicable disease or infection.

    • B. 

      Only wash hands after using the bathroom or moving equipment.

    • C. 

      Keep hair neat and clean and always wear a hat or hair net.

    • D. 

      Do not smoke or chew gum.

  • 24. 
    (207) Perishable foods should never remain in the temperature danger zone for more than how many hours?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 25. 
    (207) Leftovers should be reheated to what internal temperature?
    • A. 

      125°F.

    • B. 

      135°F.

    • C. 

      145°F.

    • D. 

      165°F.

  • 26. 
    (207) How often should carpeted surfaces be steam cleaned?
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semi-annually.

  • 27. 
    (207) Defrost refrigeration storage units when ice build up reaches
    • A. 

      1/8 inch.

    • B. 

      1/4 inch.

    • C. 

      3/8 inch.

    • D. 

      1/2 inch.

  • 28. 
    (207) What should be done before cleaning any electric equipment?
    • A. 

      Wipe off equipment.

    • B. 

      Inspect the equipment.

    • C. 

      Unplug the equipment.

    • D. 

      Turn off all equipment.

  • 29. 
    (208) Food borne illnesses are divided into natural or chemical poisons,
    • A. 

      Cyanide poisoning, food borne intoxication, and food borne infection.

    • B. 

      Food borne intoxication, and food borne infection.

    • C. 

      Cyanide poisoning, and food borne infection.

    • D. 

      Food borne intoxication, and cyanide poisoning.

  • 30. 
    (208) Symptoms of food intoxication commonly referred to as food poisoning, usually occur how quickly?
    • A. 

      1-2 hours.

    • B. 

      2-4 hours.

    • C. 

      4-12 hours.

    • D. 

      6-24 hours.

  • 31. 
    (208) How quickly do symptoms of food infection usually occur?
    • A. 

      1 - 2 hours.

    • B. 

      2 - 4 hours.

    • C. 

      4 - 12 hours.

    • D. 

      6 - 24 hours.

  • 32. 
    (209) How long can potentially hazardous foods be in the danger zone before they are considered unsafe for consumption and destroyed?
    • A. 

      Two hours.

    • B. 

      Four hours.

    • C. 

      Six hours.

    • D. 

      Eight hours.

  • 33. 
    (209) To effectively prepare potentially hazardous foods have been cooked, refrigerated, and must be served hot again, reheat the leftovers to an internal temperature of at least
    • A. 

      155 °F for at least 15 seconds.

    • B. 

      155 °F for at least 30 seconds.

    • C. 

      165°F for at least 15 seconds.

    • D. 

      165°F for at least 30 seconds.

  • 34. 
    (209) Which of the following potentially hazardous leftover foods may be frozen?
    • A. 

      Casseroles only.

    • B. 

      Meat sauces only.

    • C. 

      Any food as long as the food depth is not more than three inches.

    • D. 

      None, freezing of leftovers is strictly forbidden.

  • 35. 
    (209) What is the proper internal temperature for rare roast beef and rare beefsteak?
    • A. 

      120°F.

    • B. 

      130°F.

    • C. 

      140°F.

    • D. 

      150°F.

  • 36. 
    (209) How should you thaw potentially hazardous foods?
    • A. 

      Completely submerged under standing water.

    • B. 

      At room temperature for no more than six hours.

    • C. 

      Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40 °F or less.

    • D. 

      In a microwave and then stored under refrigeration to keep the food temperature above 41 °F.

  • 37. 
    (210) Who recommends that managers and employees be properly trained to enable a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) program to be successful?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    • B. 

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

    • C. 

      United States Department of Agriculture (USD A).

    • D. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).

  • 38. 
    (210) What does a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) record keeping system document?
    • A. 

      What corrective actions are effective.

    • B. 

      An ongoing, effective system is in place.

    • C. 

      The effectiveness of the Critical Control Points.

    • D. 

      Tracks which days and meal periods that HACCP is used.

  • 39. 
    (211) The cooking term "blend" means to:
    • A. 

      Mix two or more ingredients thoroughly.

    • B. 

      Mix two or more ingredients with a circular motion.

    • C. 

      Beat rapidly with wire whip to increase volume by incorporating air .

    • D. 

      Make a mixture smooth by using a fast regular circular and lifting motion.

  • 40. 
    (211) The cooking term "chop" means to cut:
    • A. 

      Into very small pieces.

    • B. 

      Into small cubes or pieces.

    • C. 

      Food into irregular small pieces.

    • D. 

      Any food into square-shaped pieces.

  • 41. 
    (211) The cooking term "partially thaw," means to remove from freezer and place under refrigeration approximately how many hours before intended use?
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      18.

    • C. 

      36.

    • D. 

      48.

  • 42. 
    (212) The purpose of sautéing food is to:
    • A. 

      Seal the moisture inside the food and protect the oil.

    • B. 

      Achieve a higher cooking temperature without the agitation of boiling the food.

    • C. 

      Deliver heat at an even rate to all sides of a food so all parts are cooked at the same time.

    • D. 

      Minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development of the food.

  • 43. 
    (212) Which cooking method(s) uses oil to transfer heat by conduction?
    • A. 

      Deep fat frying.

    • B. 

      Broiling and grilling.

    • C. 

      Baking and roasting.

    • D. 

      Boiling and steaming.

  • 44. 
    (212) Steam under pressure can reach very high temperatures because:
    • A. 

      There are numerous molecules of fresh air present in the container.

    • B. 

      Of the constant replacement of heated air in the container.

    • C. 

      The transfer of heat is to the center of the food.

    • D. 

      There is no air present.

  • 45. 
    (213) What is the internal temperature of doneness for rare cooked foods?
    • A. 

      120°F.

    • B. 

      130°F.

    • C. 

      140°F.

    • D. 

      150°F.

  • 46. 
    (213) The shift leader uses the production log to communicate what information to the servers?
    • A. 

      How much to serve, what ingredients were used, and what utensils to use.

    • B. 

      How much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.

    • C. 

      What ingredients were used, how to place the selections on the plate, and how much to serve.

    • D. 

      What ingredients were used, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.

  • 47. 
    (213) The main purpose of garnish it to:
    • A. 

      Improve the appearance of the dining facility.

    • B. 

      Increase nutritional value.

    • C. 

      Stimulate the appetite.

    • D. 

      Decorate food.

  • 48. 
    (213) When planning food replenishment of the serving line, what should you ensure?
    • A. 

      Speed of the serving line.

    • B. 

      Simplicity for the line servers.

    • C. 

      Foods from the kitchen are placed on the serving line with minimal handling.

    • D. 

      Use the same pans for cooking and serving to reduce the number of dirty dishes.

  • 49. 
    (213) As a safety precaution, never fill pans that contain liquids more than how full?
    • A. 

      One-third.

    • B. 

      One-half.

    • C. 

      Two-thirds.

    • D. 

      Three-fourths.

  • 50. 
    (213) What utensil is used for serving baked fish?
    • A. 

      Slotted spoon.

    • B. 

      Solid spoon.

    • C. 

      Food tongs.

    • D. 

      Spatula.

  • 51. 
    (214) What are the benefits of progressive cooking?
    • A. 

      Improves use of food, time, and personnel.

    • B. 

      Better use of leftovers and dining facility money.

    • C. 

      Improves customer satisfaction and speeds up customer flow.

    • D. 

      Standardization of serving sizes and determination of peak feeding periods.

  • 52. 
    (214) When producing large quantities of food, what is the most important management tool?
    • A. 

      Proper serving techniques.

    • B. 

      Progressive cooking.

    • C. 

      Waste control.

    • D. 

      Planning.

  • 53. 
    (215) At a minimum, how long before the open of business should overrides be conducted?
    • A. 

      Anytime before the meal.

    • B. 

      30 minutes.

    • C. 

      2 hours.

    • D. 

      1 hour.

  • 54. 
    (215) When do you not need to complete the daily waste log?
    • A. 

      At the end of each meal.

    • B. 

      At the close of business.

    • C. 

      Before the last meal is served.

    • D. 

      Before performing the end-of-day functions.

  • 55. 
    (215) The waste log should be placed in
    • A. 

      The storeroom.

    • B. 

      A central location.

    • C. 

      The managers' office.

    • D. 

      A shift leaders' pocket.

  • 56. 
    (215) How often should the cashier's miscellaneous log be checked?
    • A. 

      Once a day.

    • B. 

      Once a meal.

    • C. 

      Throughout the day.

    • D. 

      Throughout the meal.

  • 57. 
    (215) What should be attached to the Production Log daily?
    • A. 

      Cashiers' miscellaneous report.

    • B. 

      Cashiers' miscellaneous log.

    • C. 

      Shift leader checklist.

    • D. 

      Sanitation checklist.

  • 58. 
    (215) What is the purpose of the Corporate Food Service Recipe System* interactive software?*Also called the Air Force Food Service Recipe System (AFFRS)
    • A. 

      Solve recipe problems.

    • B. 

      Provide food service recipe card training.

    • C. 

      Improve shift leader recognition programs.

    • D. 

      Manage recipes, menus, and nutrition databases.

  • 59. 
    (215) In order to find a specific recipe using the Corporate Food Service Recipe System* you would search by:*Also called the Air Force Food Service Recipe System (AFFRS)
    • A. 

      Recipe method.

    • B. 

      Ingredients.

    • C. 

      Meal.

    • D. 

      Name.

  • 60. 
    (215) What information does the point of sales (POS) system track?
    • A. 

      Trends and customer desires using a selection ratio concept.

    • B. 

      Ingredients and nutritional information for each recipe.

    • C. 

      Names of all shift workers and the items prepared.

    • D. 

      Number of portions and portion sizes to prepare.

  • 61. 
    (215) What is the most dynamic user interface of the point of sales (POS) system?
    • A. 

      Thermal printer.

    • B. 

      Digital pole display.

    • C. 

      Touch screen terminal.

    • D. 

      Identification card (ID) reader.

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Break down the ingredients into weights and measures.

    • B. 

      Break down the ingredients from decimals to fractions.

    • C. 

      Obtain a working factor by dividing the portions by 100.

    • D. 

      Obtain a working factor by multiplying the portions by 100.

  • 63. 
    (216) Potatoes should be considered a "weight" in a recipe because potatoes can be
    • A. 

      Weighed on a scale.

    • B. 

      Measured with a spoon.

    • C. 

      Cooked with the skin on.

    • D. 

      Measured in a measuring cup.

  • 64. 
    (216) How do you obtain a converted weight of an ingredient?
    • A. 

      Multiply the working factor by the weight of each ingredient.

    • B. 

      Divide the working factor by the weight of each ingredient.

    • C. 

      Multiply the weight of each ingredient by 100.

    • D. 

      Divide the weight of each ingredient by 100.

  • 65. 
    (216) How many tablespoons are in one cup?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      16.

    • C. 

      32.

    • D. 

      48.

  • 66. 
    (217) How many hours after placing an order through the Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) should a delivery be received?
    • A. 

      24.

    • B. 

      36.

    • C. 

      48.

    • D. 

      72.

  • 67. 
    (217) What is a tool to help you improve the quality of subsistence received by highlighting problems with subsistence received?
    • A. 

      Customer Complaint Report (CCR).

    • B. 

      Unsatisfactory Service Report (USR).

    • C. 

      Unsatisfactory Material Report (UMR).

    • D. 

      Unsatisfactory Subsistence Report (USR).

  • 68. 
    (217) At what temperatures must fresh meats and poultry be stored?
    • A. 

      32 - 36°F.

    • B. 

      36 - 40°F.

    • C. 

      38 - 42°F.

    • D. 

      40 - 44°F.

  • 69. 
    (217) How many inches above the floor should semi-perishable subsistence be stored?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 70. 
    (217) Where should older subsistence items be stored?
    • A. 

      Front of the shelves.

    • B. 

      Back of the shelves.

    • C. 

      In the freezer.

    • D. 

      On the floor.

  • 71. 
     (217) At what temperature should frozen foods be thawed inside a refrigerator?
    • A. 

      Above 0°F.

    • B. 

      30 - 35°F.

    • C. 

      40°F or below.

    • D. 

      50°F or below.

  • 72. 
    (217) Which frozen vegetables should be thawed before cooking?
    • A. 

      Corn on the cob and leafy vegetables.

    • B. 

      Green beans and corn on the cob.

    • C. 

      Lima beans and peas.

    • D. 

      Spinach and peas.

  • 73. 
    (217) When should frozen, pre-breaded seafood be thawed?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      Before frying in the fryer.

    • C. 

      Before baking in the oven.

    • D. 

      At least 24 hours prior to cooking.

  • 74. 
    (218) What is the cardinal rule for stock control?
    • A. 

      First in, first out (FIFO).

    • B. 

      First in, last out (FILO).

    • C. 

      Last in, first out (LIFO).

    • D. 

      Follow the Production Log.

  • 75. 
    (218) When are internal physical inventories conducted?
    • A. 

      At the end of the last calendar day each month, and semi-annually.

    • B. 

      Weekly, and at the end of the last calendar day each month.

    • C. 

      At the end of the last calendar day of each month, and quarterly.

    • D. 

      Weekly, and then semi-annually.

  • 76. 
    (218) What is used to record the physical inventory count on the day the inventory is taken?
    • A. 

      Subsistence tracking form.

    • B. 

      Inventory count worksheet.

    • C. 

      Production Log.

    • D. 

      Waste log.

  • 77. 
    (218) Who signs the Edit List Count Sheet, certifying the inventory is correct?
    • A. 

      Storeroom personnel and individual who conducted the inventory.

    • B. 

      Food service manager and food service officer (FSO).

    • C. 

      Food service manager and food service officer (FSO).

    • D. 

      Storeroom personnel and dining facility manager.

  • 78. 
    (218) In non-automated facilities, what is used for all transfers?
    • A. 

      AF Form 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt.

    • B. 

      AF Form 3514, Inventory Count Worksheet.

    • C. 

      Transfer Reconciliation Report.

    • D. 

      Transfer History Report.

  • 79. 
    (218) In automated facilities, where in the corporate food service (CFS) system is the transfer conducted?
    • A. 

      Inventory Control.

    • B. 

      Inventory Control.

    • C. 

      Menu Recapitulation.

    • D. 

      Inventory Recapitulation.

  • 80. 
    (218) When can you print a receipt for each order you place?
    • A. 

      At any time.

    • B. 

      First thing the next business day.

    • C. 

      24 hours before scheduled delivery.

    • D. 

      After the order has been transmitted to the Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES).

  • 81. 
    (218) When should the back dock receipt, reconciliation, and a copy of the vendor invoice be sent to the accountant?
    • A. 

      End of each month.

    • B. 

      Same day as delivery.

    • C. 

      Within 24 hours of delivery.

    • D. 

      Within one week of delivery.

  • 82. 
    (218) What do we use in food service to forecast our subsistence needs?
    • A. 

      Menu recapitulation (recap).

    • B. 

      Ingredient forecast report.

    • C. 

      Subsistence recap.

    • D. 

      Ingredient recap.

  • 83. 
    (218) How much lead time is needed by the Defense Supply Center Philadelphia (DSCP) for delivery of wartime menus?
    • A. 

      45 days.

    • B. 

      30 days.

    • C. 

      24 hours.

    • D. 

      24 hours.

  • 84. 
    (218) Once approved by Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Air Force Food Service (HQ AFSVA/SVOF) and a document number is assigned to an operational rations order, what happens next with the request?
    • A. 

      It is forwarded to the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) for approval.

    • B. 

      A copy is forwarded to the Defense Supply Center Philadelphia (DSCP).

    • C. 

      It is sent to the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) for approval.

    • D. 

      A copy is forwarded to the major command (MAJCOM).

  • 85. 
    (219) Which report detects usage of an item that exceeds the on-hand summary?
    • A. 

      Sales offset.

    • B. 

      Sales and cost.

    • C. 

      Uncosted items.

    • D. 

      On-hand inventory.

  • 86. 
    (219) How often should the accountant print a transfer reconciliation report?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 87. 
    (219) To which Air Force (AF) or Defense Department (DD) form is the cash reconciliation report attached once it is printed?
    • A. 

      AF Food Service Production Log.

    • B. 

      DD Food Service Dining Facility Receipt.

    • C. 

      AF Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher.

  • 88. 
    (219) What items are found in the cash reconciliation report?
    • A. 

      Description, amount, count, and serial numbers.

    • B. 

      Count, description, reporting period total, and unit name.

    • C. 

      Reporting period, number, count, and cash count report.

    • D. 

      Sales off-set report, reporting period, building number, and total amount.

  • 89. 
    (219) Once transactions are processed, in what journal can the associated information be found?
    • A. 

      Sales.

    • B. 

      History.

    • C. 

      Sales offset.

    • D. 

      Transaction.

  • 90. 
    (219) In order to print a record of processed purchases and transactions for a given inventory period, which journal would be printed?
    • A. 

      Purchase history.

    • B. 

      Inventory history.

    • C. 

      Sales offset history.

    • D. 

      Transaction history.

  • 91. 
    (219) Which Air Force (AF) or Defense Department (DD) form accounts for signatures records on the AF Form 79, Cash Collection Record (Storage Safeguard Form)?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1305, Receipt for Transfer of Cash and Vouchers.

    • C. 

      AF Form 1254, Register of Cash Collection Sheets.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher.

  • 92. 
    (220) Which is not a role of the prime vendor (PV) account representative?
    • A. 

      Ensures information is current and constant.

    • B. 

      Develops requirements for cataloging.

    • C. 

      Approves items for use in facilities.

    • D. 

      Approves all subsistence orders.

  • 93. 
    (220) How soon after placing a prime vendor (PV) order will the subsistence be received?
    • A. 

      24 hours.

    • B. 

      48 hours.

    • C. 

      1 week.

    • D. 

      12 days.

  • 94. 
    (220) To whom do you speak to first if you are having problems with the quality or timeliness of food deliveries?
    • A. 

      Defense Supply Center Philadelphia (DSCP) manager.

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) representative.

    • C. 

      Food service officer (FSO).

    • D. 

      Prime vendor (PV).

  • 95. 
    (220) To verify that you can use new, innovative products not in the Air Force Core Catalog, you should contact:
    • A. 

      Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Air Force Food Service.

    • B. 

      The prime vendor (PV) account representative.

    • C. 

      The food service superintendent.

    • D. 

      The PV.

  • 96. 
    (220) The storeroom manager, dining facility manager, and food service accountant must review all prime vendor (PV) orders by when?
    • A. 

      One week before the order is sent.

    • B. 

      The business day the order is received.

    • C. 

      Close of business the day after the order is sent.

    • D. 

      Close of business the day before the order is sent.

  • 97. 
    (220) After the dining facility manager has reviewed changes to an order, who reviews the order next?
    • A. 

      Food service accountant.

    • B. 

      Food service officer (FSO).

    • C. 

      Food service superintendent.

    • D. 

      Prime vendor (PV) account representative.

  • 98. 
    (220) Within 24 hours after an order is received, the storeroom manager must turn in all paperwork to whom?
    • A. 

      Dining facility manager.

    • B. 

      Food service accountant.

    • C. 

      Prime vendor (PV) account representative.

    • D. 

      Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Air Force Food Service.

  • 99. 
    (220) The duties of a storeroom clerk do not include:
    • A. 

      Ensuring food is controlled from the time of receipt until served.

    • B. 

      Ensuring the right quantities of food are prepared.

    • C. 

      Recording all food transferred between facilities.

    • D. 

      Keeping high-dollar storage areas secured.

  • 100. 
    (220) Which is not a principal for importing and reconciling catalogs items?
    • A. 

      Always view the event log after a catalog imports.

    • B. 

      Verify that all subsistence prices have not changed.

    • C. 

      Be sure to link/unlink any items that have been made inactive.

    • D. 

      Check that vendor items are “nested” and are linked to the same inventory.