2a551 Random Questions
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- 1.When must hte AFTO form 781 be removed from the forms binder?
- A.
Before each thruflight
- B.
Before the first flight of the day.
- C.
After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.
- D.
After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing.
- 2.Publicationsare listed in AFIND2 in a
- A.
Logical sequence
- B.
Numerical sequence
- C.
Alphabetical sequence
- D.
Alphanumeric sequence
- 3.If a basic postflight inspection is not required, the thru-flight inspection is normall performed
- A.
Prior to an aircraft going on alert and again before a flight after completion of the alert period
- B.
After flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled
- C.
Immediately prior to a basic post flight inspection
- D.
After the last flight of a specified flying period.
- 4.To use .032 gauge safety wire properly, there should be how many turns per inch?
- A.
7-12
- B.
8-10
- C.
8-12
- D.
10-13
- 5.To check the engagement of a push-pull rod end, you would
- A.
Use a depth gauge to check end play
- B.
Ensure not lateral movement exists
- C.
Use an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing
- D.
Insert a piece of safety wire into the hole in the end of the terminal
- 6.Responsibility for accomplishg the -1 preflight check rests with the
- A.
Aircrew
- B.
Ground crew
- C.
Operations personnel
- D.
Maintenance supervision.
- 7.Which condition is most likely to cause aircraft damage
- A.
Tornadoes
- B.
Hurricanes
- C.
Sudden local storms
- D.
Predicted heavy storms
- 8.The F-2 lifting bag is designed to lift
- A.
22,000 pounds to a maximum height of 6 feet
- B.
22,000 pounds to a maximum height of 8 feet
- C.
24,000 pounds to a maximum height of 6 feet
- D.
24,000 pounds to a maximum height of 8 feet
- 9.During crash recovery, what method of aircraft hoisting is confined to emergencies when no other method is available?
- A.
Cribbing
- B.
Lifting bags
- C.
Crane hoisting
- D.
Aircraft jacking
- 10.The maintenance activities that have the option to develop and maintain quick reference lists are those with how many or more aircraft of the same mission, design, and series
- A.
Three
- B.
Six
- C.
Nine
- D.
Twelve
- 11.Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of
- A.
Mission delays
- B.
On-time takeoffs
- C.
NRTS conditions
- D.
NMCS conditions
- 12.To issue an item of equipment for a short specified period use the
- A.
AF form 2005
- B.
AF form 2413
- C.
AF form 1297
- D.
DD form 1348-6
- 13.The base critical items list is maintained by
- A.
The critical item monitor and the Chief of Supply
- B.
Personnel in the MAJCOMs and Base Supply
- C.
Personnel in the MAJCOMs and MSL
- D.
Personnel in Base Supply in coordination with MSL
- 14.What form is used to report accomplishment of TCTO
- A.
DD form 1348-6
- B.
AFTO form 349
- C.
AF form 2413
- D.
AF form 2005
- 15.Red margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD form
- A.
1574 and DD form 1574-1
- B.
1575 and DD form 1575-1
- C.
1576 and DD form 1576-1
- D.
1577 and DD form 1577-1
- 16.Green margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD form
- A.
1577-2 and 1577-3
- B.
1576 and DD Form 1576-1
- C.
1574 and DD Form 1574-1
- D.
1575 and DD Form 1575-1
- 17.To report quality deficiences atrributed to errors in workmanship, use a Category
- A.
I DR
- B.
II DR
- C.
III DR
- D.
IV DR
- 18.Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for the first
- A.
100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt
- B.
100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt
- C.
200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt
- D.
200 hours of operation or one month from the date of receipt
- 19.A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by
- A.
By a report of survey
- B.
Inspecting the property on turn-in
- C.
Making frequent visits to base activities
- D.
Obtaining written reports from supervisors
- 20.What type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property?
- A.
Personal
- B.
Custodial
- C.
Command
- D.
Supervisory
- 21.The model 4000 engine trailer can support a maximum load of
- A.
7,000 pounds.
- B.
8,000 pounds.
- C.
9,000 pounds.
- D.
10,000 pounds.
- 22.The usable pressure range, as measured in pounds per square inch (psi), of the MC-1A air compressor is
- A.
0-300
- B.
0-350
- C.
0-3,200
- D.
05-3,500
- 23.The MC-2a air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure, measure in pounds per square inch (psi) of
- A.
200
- B.
300
- C.
3,500
- D.
3,600
- 24.The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
- A.
100f to 230F
- B.
115F to 250F
- C.
125F to 270F
- D.
150F to 280F
- 25.The stationary, skid mounted power unit htat produces aircraft electrical power for use in shops and hangars is the
- A.
A/M32A-95
- B.
MK-3A
- C.
MD-4
- D.
MB-2
- 26.A cracked radom could cause
- A.
Antenna oscillation
- B.
Dielectric increase
- C.
Microwave distortion
- D.
Electron deterioration
- 27.The reference locations, which are in the vertical direction measured fro ma reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft, are called.
- A.
Buttlines
- B.
Waterlines
- C.
Buttock stations
- D.
Fuselage stations
- 28.The effective range of a fully charged handheld fire extinguisher is
- A.
5 feet
- B.
10 feet
- C.
15 feet
- D.
20 feet
- 29.Atomospheric pressure at sea level is
- A.
14.7 pounds per square inch (psi)
- B.
17.4 psi
- C.
29.92 psi
- D.
29.29 psi
- 30.Movement about the vertical axis is called
- A.
Roll
- B.
Pitch
- C.
Crab
- D.
Yaw
- 31.The type of flight control system that allows the pilot to control the aircraft if hydraulic pressure is lost is
- A.
Boost
- B.
Manual
- C.
Powered
- D.
Differential pressure
- 32.Hydraulic manifolds are used in a hydraulic system to provide a location where the
- A.
Return lines can join together
- B.
Pressure lines can join together
- C.
Common fluid lines can come together
- D.
Hydraulic test stand can be connected
- 33.The major advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its
- A.
Damping ability
- B.
Metering ability
- C.
Capability to allow system pressure to build
- D.
Capability to relieve excess system pressure
- 34.The difference between a selector valve and a servo valve is the
- A.
Selector valve has four ports
- B.
Selector valve is more complex
- C.
Servo valve will control fluid-flow
- D.
Servo valve is electrically operated
- 35.Allowing normal operating speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while limiting speed in the other direction is done by the
- A.
Automatic check valve
- B.
Restrictor check valve
- C.
Bypass valve
- D.
Relief valve
- 36.The shock strut component that controls the rate of fluid flow through the orifice is the
- A.
Check valve
- B.
Bypass valve
- C.
Metering pin
- D.
Flow transmitter
- 37.The motion of the landing gear control lever is transmitted to the selector valve by
- A.
Control cams
- B.
By push-pull rods
- C.
By a cable system
- D.
Through hydraulic pressure
- 38.The purpose of debooster is to
- A.
Decrease fluid volume
- B.
Reduce breaking pressure
- C.
Enlarge running clearance
- D.
Increase braking pressure
- 39.Split wheels are balanced
- A.
During building
- B.
As an assembly
- C.
Individually by halves
- D.
By a self-balancing system.
- 40.The kinds of pitting that affects bearings are
- A.
Segmented and peel
- B.
Corrosive and segmented
- C.
Corrosive and mechanical
- D.
Mechanical and segmented
- 41.The two types of brinelling are
- A.
True and false
- B.
Passive and active
- C.
Neutral and natural
- D.
Negative and positive
- 42.An aircraft tires maximum recommended static load is calle the
- A.
Ply rating
- B.
Serial number
- C.
Service rating
- D.
Manufactured wear limit
- 43.The term ply rating refers to
- A.
Maximum allowable tire speed
- B.
Number of reinforcement cords
- C.
Number of cord plies in a tire
- D.
Index of tire casing strength
- 44.Electrons can be released from thier outer orbit by all of the following forces except
- A.
Heat
- B.
Cold
- C.
Chemical action
- D.
Changing magnetic field
- 45.The underspeed switch on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere generator constant speed drive actuates at
- A.
325hz
- B.
345hz
- C.
365hz
- D.
395hz
- 46.The nickel-cadmium battery
- A.
Cells are not replaceable
- B.
Is not subject to thermal runaway
- C.
Service life is short and its subject to thermal runaway
- D.
Electrolyte will appear to be low when the cells are partially discharged
- 47.One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the
- A.
Flap
- B.
Segmented
- C.
Segmented flap
- D.
Segmented nozzle
- 48.The hamilton stnadard 54h60-91 propeller is a
- A.
Three-bladed, reversible-pitch propeller; 13.5 in diameter
- B.
Three-bladed, reversible-pitch propeller; 15.5 in diameter
- C.
Four-bladed, reversible-pitch propeller; 13.5 in diameter
- D.
Four-bladed, reversible-pitch propeller; 15.5 in diameter
- 49.In a direct current, liquid level fuel indicating system, the wiper contact is positioned on the resistance strip by
- A.
Signals from the amplifier
- B.
The movement of a float in the tanks
- C.
Voltage changes in the indicator circuit
- D.
The amount of pressure entering the fuel tank
- 50.The primary purpose of the air pressure regulator in a fuel system is to
- A.
Indicate the manifold pressure
- B.
Open the vent vales during a climb or dive
- C.
Actuate a micro switch and turn the air flow light on
- D.
Control the amount of pressure entering the tank
- 51.Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the
- A.
Ambient pressure and ambient temperature
- B.
Engine throttle setting and ambient altitude
- C.
Ambient pressure and engine throttle setting
- D.
Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature
- 52.If the temperature of the bleed air from a cargo-type air conditioning system's primary heat exhcanger exceeds 540F, the high limit section of the temperature anticipator will
- A.
Open the ram air valve
- B.
Turn on a warning light
- C.
Close the primary heat exchanger ejector valve
- D.
Close the bleed air regulating and shut off valve
- 53.The air-conditioning in a cargo aircrat uses a diverter valve to diver air to
- A.
The cooling turbine
- B.
The water separator
- C.
The flight station gaspers
- D.
Flight station and cargo compartments
- 54.The action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system is controlled by
- A.
A jet pump
- B.
Filtering cabin air
- C.
The unpressurized range
- D.
Regulating control chamber pressure
- 55.The purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system is to
- A.
Control the venting of cabin pressure
- B.
Control the reference chamber pressure
- C.
Ensure both outflow vales operate at the same time
- D.
Ensure the aneroid and diaphragm inlet ports remain open
- 56.The manual control valve in the variable isobaric pressurization system is used as an alternate when the
- A.
Safety valve fails
- B.
Outflow valve fails
- C.
Pneumatic relay fails
- D.
Cabin pressure controller fails
- 57.The maximum circuit resistance within a thermocouple circuit is
- A.
5 ohms
- B.
50 ohms
- C.
500 ohms
- D.
Infinity
- 58.The direct current volatage supplies to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of
- A.
10Hz
- B.
100Hz
- C.
200Hz
- D.
400Hz
- 59.When the pressure in a T-handle liquid fire extinguisher container becomes too low,
- A.
The check valve will open
- B.
The check valve will close
- C.
The pressure switch will open
- D.
A light on the cockpit panel will glow
- 60.An H-2 emergency assembly (bailout bottle) supplies oxygen to the user for a maximum of about
- A.
5 minutes
- B.
10 minutes
- C.
15 minutes
- D.
20 minutes
- 61.In a molecular sieve oxygen generating system, water droplets from the air are removed by an
- A.
Water separator
- B.
Molecular sieve bed
- C.
MSOGS shutoff valve
- D.
MSOGS concentrator inlet filter
- 62.Liquid oxygen converts to gaseous oxygen at an expansion ratio of
- A.
600 to 1
- B.
680 to 1
- C.
800 to 1
- D.
860 to 1
- 63.The chracteristic of the fluid used in a liquid coolant system that makes it suitable as a coolant for electronic components is its.
- A.
Viscosity
- B.
Resistance
- C.
Metallic content
- D.
Nonconductance
- 64.Air trapped in a liquid coolant system (LCS)
- A.
Causes a low-pressure condition
- B.
Activates the filter delta pressure switch
- C.
Forces the thermal modulating valve closed
- D.
Reduces the cooling capability of the coolant.
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