Wizard 1 & 2
Settings
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+
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- 1.
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- B.
On-The Job training Records.
- C.
Career Development Course (CDC)
- D.
Job Qualification Standard (JQS)
- 2.
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
- 3.Which Classification uses a combination of the first digit and second position letter in an Air Force Specialty Code and is a function grouping of personnel requiring the same knowledge and skills?
- A.
Career Group
- B.
Career Field
- C.
Career field subdivision
- D.
Skill level
- 4.
- A.
Communications administration, information manangement, and computer components.
- B.
Electronic principles, transmission systems, and wireless communications
- C.
Plans and implementation, land mobile radio, and programming
- D.
Cyber surety, C4 systems, and transmission lines.
- 5.In general, which agencies would you coordinate frequency requirements?
- A.
Private, federal, and military spectrum manangement
- B.
Military, federal, and civil spectrum management
- C.
Military and civil spectrum management only
- D.
Commercial and federal only
- 6.On an installation who is responsible for reporting electromagnetic interference?
- A.
The using activity
- B.
The radio technician
- C.
Installation spectrum manager
- D.
Communications squadron officer
- 7.What is required for spectrum managers to initiate, review, or change frequency dependent equipment?
- A.
Equipment manual
- B.
Spectrum XXI database
- C.
Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF)
- D.
DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation
- 8.Which career field performs system hardware and software operations, management, and administration?
- A.
Client systems technician (3D1X1)
- B.
Cyber transport technician (3D1X2)
- C.
Computer systems programmer (3D0X4)
- D.
Knowledge operations management (3D0X1)
- 9.
- A.
During flight
- B.
While in storage
- C.
During disassembly
- D.
Upon contact with target
- 10.The Spectrum Operations technicians supply which organization with radio frequency information to conduct an electromagnetic radiation survey?
- A.
Base Safety
- B.
Ground Radio
- C.
Wing OPSEC
- D.
Civil Engineering
- 11.Which security program deals with with denying the enemy information of value that might be derived from the possession of telecommunications?
- A.
Emission security
- B.
Operations security
- C.
Transmission security
- D.
Communications security
- 12.During which step of the communications security (COMSEC) process must individual pages of COMSEC material be accounted for?
- A.
Storing
- B.
Receiving
- C.
Destroying
- D.
Inventorying
- 13.Two-person integrity communications security material is considered properly controlled when the
- A.
Facility is a class B rated vault and personnel gaurding the material know the combination to the lock
- B.
Facility is a class B rated vault and personnel gaurding the material do not know the combination to the lock
- C.
Stroage container is a non-GSA approved security container, but is modified with a hasp and an approved dial-type lock
- D.
Stroage container is a non-GSA approved security container, but is modified with two hasps and two approved three position dial-type locks.
- 14.Which statement best meets the requirements for transporting communications security (COMSEC) material?
- A.
On installations, COMSEC material need not to be sealed
- B.
During convoys, position COMSEC material in the lead vehicle.
- C.
During convoys, position COMSEC material in the middle of the convoy.
- D.
Off installations, enclose material in a sealed package or within a sealed briefcase.
- 15.Which of the following are types of communications security incidents?
- A.
Personnel, electronic, and physical
- B.
Physical, personnel, and cryptographic
- C.
Physical, electronic, and cryptographic.
- D.
Cryptographic, personnel, and electronic.
- 16.
- A.
Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) or COMSEC manager.
- B.
Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the group commander and security manager.
- C.
Within 12 hours of the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the CRO or COMSEC manager
- D.
Within 12 hours of the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the unit commander and security manager.
- 17.Which action would not be considered a cryptographinc COMSEC incident?
- A.
Using a compromised, superseded, or defective COMSEC key
- B.
Finding an electronic surveillance device in or near a COMSEC facility
- C.
Using COMSEC equipment without completing a required alarm-check test.
- D.
Discussing the details of a COMSEC equipment failure over an unsecured phone.
- 18.Which type of situation often causes a communications security violation?
- A.
Fatigue
- B.
Carelessness
- C.
Lack of training
- D.
Disregarding procedures.
- 19.Which security program protects against the enemy's interception of compromising emanations from information systems?
- A.
Communications security
- B.
Transmission security
- C.
Computer security
- D.
Emissions security
- 20.
- A.
The level of classification on the system
- B.
Emissions security assessments
- C.
Technical surveillance team investigations
- D.
The dimensions of the building housing the equipment
- 21.Without complying with Emissions Security procedures, processing what type of information would be a reportable security incident?
- A.
Classified
- B.
Unclassified
- C.
Unencrypted
- D.
For Official Use Only
- 22.Which Security discipline outlines security features needed to protect hardware, software, or data associated with any automated information system?
- A.
Communications security
- B.
Transmission security
- C.
Computer security
- D.
Emissions security
- 23.Which word-processing feature causes data to be temporarily stored on the hard disk causing a security concern to classified data processing?
- A.
Backup files
- B.
Personal dictionary
- C.
Cut-and-paste buffer
- D.
Buffer overflow files
- 24.An unauthorized disclosure of what type of information can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security?
- A.
North Atlantic Treaty Organization Restricted
- B.
Confidential communications security
- C.
Secret
- D.
Top Secret
- 25.
- A.
Unclassified
- B.
Confidential
- C.
Secret
- D.
Top Secret
- 26.If your frequency database contains all Department of defense frequency records, at what level, if any, would the database be classified?
- A.
Unclassified
- B.
For Official Use Only
- C.
Confidential
- D.
Secret
- 27.
- A.
Unclassified, because the frequency assignments are unclassified.
- B.
Unclassified, because you are not selecting the entire US Army database.
- C.
Conrfidential, because the aggregate list is Confidential
- D.
Confidential, because you are searching from the entire US Army database
- 28.In the prevention and detection of unauthorized users to our computer systems, what should be used as a last line of defense?
- A.
Government-owned software
- B.
Authentication procedures
- C.
Access controls
- D.
Security checks
- 29.The main objective of risk analysis is to
- A.
Identify, control, and minimize the impact of uncertain events
- B.
Ensure wires carrying classified information are properly shieled
- C.
Ensure the enemy does not intercept any our sensitive unclassified conversations
- D.
Determine if the person receiving classified information has the proper security clearance
- 30.At what interval must Entry Authorization Lists be reviewed to ensure they are current?
- A.
5 days
- B.
10 days
- C.
30 days
- D.
90 days
- 31.Personnel not on the Entry Authorization List must be signed in on a/an
- A.
Standard Form (SF) 700, Security Container Information
- B.
Air Force (AF) Form 1109, Visitor Register Log
- C.
Standard Form (SF) 702, Security Container Check Sheet
- D.
Air Force (AF) Form 1875, Controlled Documents Log
- 32.Which security program deals with the improper handling of classified material?
- A.
Physical Security
- B.
Computer Security
- C.
Transmission Security
- D.
Communications Security
- 33.Which of the following is not considered a violation of physical security?
- A.
Open and ungaurded safes
- B.
Improper password protection
- C.
Unattended classified documents
- D.
Misplaced or misfiled documents
- 34.Which international organization is responsible for international frequency allocations, worldwide telecommunications standards, and telecommunications development activities?
- A.
International Telecommunications Union (ITU)
- B.
International frequency Registration Board
- C.
Interdepartmental Radio Advisory Committee (IRAC)
- D.
International Radio Consultative Committee
- 35.
- A.
Telecommunication standardization, radio communications, and development
- B.
Telecommunication communications, radio standardization, and engineering.
- C.
Radio standardization, telecommunications standardization, and engineering.
- D.
International telecommunication, radio standardization, and development
- 36.Which sector within the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) studies technical, operating, and tariff questions?
- A.
Telecommunication standardization
- B.
Radio communications
- C.
Development
- D.
General Secretariat
- 37.
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
6
- 38.
- A.
Every 3 months
- B.
Every 6 months
- C.
Every 8 months
- D.
Every 12 months
- 39.The communications Act of 1934 established which two spectrum management organizations to control the federal and non-federal spectrum respectively?
- A.
National Telecommunications and Inforamation Administration and the Federal Communications Commission.
- B.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration and the Federal Aviation Administration
- C.
Department of Commerce and the Federal Communications Commission
- D.
Defense Spectrum Office and the Federal Aviation Administration
- 40.Which National telecommunications and Information Administration entity assists the Office of Spectrum Management with development and execution of policies, programs, procedures, and criteria for allocating, managing and using the radio frequence spectrum?
- A.
Radio Communication Bureau
- B.
World Telecommunication Advisory Council
- C.
Interdepartmental Radio Advisory Committee
- D.
United States Military Communications-Electronics Board
- 41.Which agency under the National Telecommunications and Information Administration prepares wide-reanging studies of the US telecommunication industry as well as arguments for the telecommunication policy proceedings conducted by the Federal Communications Commission?
- A.
Office of International Affairs.
- B.
Office of Spectrum Management.
- C.
Office of Spectrum Management.
- D.
Office of Policy Analysis and Development.
- 42.Which publication contains regulatory and technical guidance for federal users as well as the international table of allocations and the US table of allocations to include federal and non-federal frequency bands?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–118, Radio Frequency Spectrum Management.
- B.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 33–120, Radio Frequency (RF) Spectrum Management
- C.
Military Communications-Electronics Board (MCEB) Pub 7, Frequency Resource Record System (FRRS) Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF)
- D.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration Manual of Regulations & Procedures for Federal Radio Frequency Management
- 43.Which of the following are technical guidelines by which the frequencies within a given frequency band are to be assigned?
- A.
Communication annexes
- B.
Channeling plans
- C.
Allocation tables.
- D.
Allotment plans.
- 44.Which agency maintains frequency records, analyzes frequency use, and requests assignment of frequencies needed by the Defense Communication System
- A.
Federal Communications Commission.
- B.
Defense Information Systems Agency.
- C.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration.
- D.
United States Military Communications-Electronics Board.
- 45.Which organization is responsible for developing integrated spectrum planning and long-term strategies to address current and future needs for Department of Defense spectrum access?
- A.
Defense Spectrum Organization.
- B.
Defense Information Systems Agency.
- C.
Air Force Spectrum Management Office.
- D.
United States Military Communications-Electronics Board.
- 46.Which organization represents and defends the Air Force radio frequency spectrum technical interests in committees, groups, and organizations that address RF spectrum management matters?
- A.
Joint Spectrum Center
- B.
Major command spectrum managers.
- C.
Air Force Spectrum Management Office
- D.
Headquarters Air Force Communications Agency.
- 47.
- A.
Joint Spectrum Center personnel
- B.
Installation spectrum management office personnel.
- C.
Major command spectrum management personnel.
- D.
Air Force-sponsored DOD Area Frequency Coordinator personnel.
- 48.Frequency assignments received for all non-North Atlantic Treaty Organization requirements are processed by the
- A.
Air Forces Europe FMO.
- B.
Frequency Management Field Office.
- C.
International Frequency Support Office.
- D.
US European Command Joint Frequency Management Office EUROPE.
- 49.All contingency and Joint Chief of Staff/European Command-sponsored exercise frequency requests would be received by the
- A.
Air Forces Europe FMO.
- B.
Frequency Management Field Office.
- C.
International Frequency Support Office.
- D.
US European Command Joint Frequency Management Office EUROPE.
- 50.Which organization was established for the purpose of advising users on complex technical and procedural issues involving electromagnetic spectrum management?
- A.
Special Operations Command, Pacific.
- B.
Joint Frequency Management Office-Guam.
- C.
Pacific Command (PACOM) Joint Frequency Coordinating Committee.
- D.
US Forces Korea Joint Frequency Management Office Korea
- 51.Which of the following is no longer a subordinate command of HQ Pacific Command (PACOM)?
- A.
US Forces Japan (USFJ)—JFMO Japan.
- B.
US Forces Korea (USFK)—JFMO Korea
- C.
Alaskan Command (ALCOM)—JFMO Alaska.
- D.
Joint Frequency Management Office-GUAM (JFMO Guam).
- 52.Which organization is the receiving point for all Air Force frequency and equipment allocation requests in the Pacific Command (PACOM) theater?
- A.
Alaskan Command (ALCOM)—JFMO Alaska.
- B.
Air Force Frequency Management Agency (AFFMA).
- C.
Headquarters Pacific Air Forces (HQ PACAF/SCCS).
- D.
Joint Frequency Management Office-GUAM (JFMO Guam).
- 53.Which organization provides frequency and equipment allocation support for all services deploying to the Southern Command area of responsibility?
- A.
AFSOUTH/A6X (12AF).
- B.
Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO).
- C.
Headquarters, US Southern Command (HQ USSOUTHCOM)/J6.
- D.
Headquarters, Southern Special Operations Command (HQ SOCSOUTH).
- 54.
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–118, Electromagnetic Spectrum Management
- B.
Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4640.13, Management of Base and Long-Haul Telecommunications Equipment and Services.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 33–120, Radio Frequency (RF) Spectrum Management.
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD) Instruction 4650.1, Policy and Procedures for Management and Use of the Electromagnetic Spectrum.
- 55.
- A.
Antenna Equipment Characteristics.
- B.
Receiver Equipment Characteristics.
- C.
Transmitter Equipment Characteristics.
- D.
Rectifier Equipment Characteristics.
- 56.
- A.
Government Master File (GMF).
- B.
International Frequency List (IFL).
- C.
Frequency Resource Record System (FRRS).
- D.
Host Nation Spectrum Worldwide Database (HNSWD).
- 57.Which spectrum management publication contains information concerning the release of technical information to foreign governments for systems planned for use outside the US&P?
- A.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 33–120, Radio Frequency (RF) Spectrum Management and Major Command (MAJCOM) supplements
- B.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–118, Electromagnetic Spectrum Management and Major Command (MAJCOM) supplements.
- C.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) Manual, annex J.
- D.
Military Communications-Electronics Board (MCEB) Publication 7.
- 58.
- A.
Marked with an approval stamp.
- B.
Marked and accompanied by written approval from the originator.
- C.
Processed through the Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO) and accompanied by written release.
- D.
Processed through Office of the Secretary of the Air Force, Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO A6).
- 59.Which organization coordinates frequency requests in areas that lie within or are adjacent to national test ranges or designated areas?
- A.
Federal Aviation Administration.
- B.
Federal Communications Commission.
- C.
Department of Defense (DOD) Area Frequency Coordinator.
- D.
Aerospace and Flight Test Radio Coordinating Council.
- 60.With whom must you coordinate frequency requirements that fall in the bands 1,435–1,535 MHz and 2,310–2,390 MHz?
- A.
Federal Aviation Administration
- B.
Federal Communications Commission
- C.
Department of Defense Area Frequency Coordinator.
- D.
Aerospace and Flight Test Radio Coordinating Council.
- 61.To what agency do major commands forward frequency requests for worldwide operations involving MYSTIC STAR/White House Communications Agency?
- A.
United States Military Communications-Electronics Board.
- B.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration.
- C.
Air Force Spectrum Management Office.
- D.
Office of the Secretary of the Air Force, Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer SAF/CIO A6.
- 62.Which organization is responsible for coordinating frequency requirements with Canada when units use terrestrial frequencies within 80 kilometers (approximately) of their border?
- A.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration.
- B.
Major command of unit using the frequency.
- C.
Air Force Spectrum Management Office.
- D.
Unit using the frequency.
- 63.Using the formula: dB = (10)log(P1/P2) , a transmitter's output is 100 kilowatts, but by the time the signal reaches the antenna the transmission line has dissipated it to 75 kilowatts. How much decibel (dB) attenuation is the transmission line displaying?
- A.
-1.25 dB
- B.
-2 dB
- C.
-15 dB
- D.
-25 dB
- 64.A technician measured a radio frequency amplifier's output and determined the output signal's power was at zero decibel milliwatts (dBm). What would be the signal's power in watts?
- A.
0.0 watts.
- B.
0.001 watts.
- C.
0.5 watts.
- D.
1.0 watt.
- 65.Using the formula dB = (10)log(P1/P2) ; a directional antenna picks up a .25 watt signal, but boosts that signal to 1 watt at its connection to the transmission line. How many decibel (dB)s of gain is the antenna exhibiting?
- A.
2 dB.
- B.
4 dB.
- C.
6 dB.
- D.
11 dB.
- 66.The force that causes the electron flow in a conductor is
- A.
Power.
- B.
Current.
- C.
Voltage.
- D.
Resistance.
- 67.
- A.
Log I = log E + log R
- B.
Log l = log E - log R
- C.
Log l = log E * log R
- D.
Log l = log(E)/log(R)
- 68.Using this logarithmic power formula: 10 log P(dBW) = 20logE - 10logR ,solve the following problem. A transmission line is feeding a 600-ohm antenna with a 90-volt signal. What is the antenna's power output in decibel milliwatts (dBm)?
- A.
11.3033 dBm.
- B.
21.3033 dBm.
- C.
31.3033 dBm.
- D.
41.3033 dBm.
- 69.Using this logarithmic power formula: 10 log P(dBW) = 20 log I + 10 log R, solve the following problem. A radio receiver is fed a 3 milliamp signal through a 50 ohm transmission line. How many decibel watts (dBW) would that signal have?
- A.
-33.4679 dBW.
- B.
-47.4679 dBW.
- C.
-67.4679 dBW.
- D.
-97.4679 dBW.
- 70.Which formula calculates the apparent power transmitted towards the receiver?
- A.
Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP).
- B.
Effective transmitted power (ETP).
- C.
Free space loss (FSL).
- D.
Ohm’s Law.
- 71.Bandwidth is measured in what unit of measurement?
- A.
Amperes
- B.
Hertz.
- C.
Volts.
- D.
Watts.
- 72.The bandwidth authorized to ensure the transmission at the rate and quality specified is
- A.
Received.
- B.
Occupied
- C.
Necessary.
- D.
Modulated.
- 73.With a necessary bandwidth of 450 KHz, which letter is used in place of the decimal point when the bandwidth is used as part of an emission designator?
- A.
G
- B.
H
- C.
K
- D.
M
- 74.With the exception of necessary bandwidth, how many optional characters are there in an emission designator?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 75.
- A.
Pulse coding.
- B.
Double sideband amplitude modulation.
- C.
Two-condition code with elements of differing numbers and/or durations.
- D.
Four-condition code in which each condition represents a signal element (of one or more bits).
- 76.The letter D in the third symbol slot of an emission designator represents
- A.
Telegraphy—for aural reception.
- B.
Telegraphy—for automatic reception.
- C.
Telephony (includes sound broadcasting).
- D.
Data transmission, telemetry, telecommand.
- 77.Which emission designator represents a TADIL-A (Link 11) transmission?
- A.
3K00J3C.
- B.
6K00B7D.
- C.
25K00G7W.
- D.
45K00F2D.
- 78.Which emission designator represents a single-channel, unencrypted voice transmission?
- A.
1K24F1B.
- B.
3K00J3C.
- C.
6K00A3E.
- D.
45K00F2D.
- 79.Which emission designator represents a homer beacon?
- A.
2K04A2A
- B.
3K00A3E.
- C.
6K00A3E
- D.
45K00F2D.
- 80.The super high frequencies designation applies to frequencies from
- A.
3 to 30 MHz.
- B.
300 to 3,000 MHz.
- C.
3 to 30 GHz.
- D.
30 to 300 GHz.
- 81.Which formula do we use to calculate a signal's physical wavelength?
- A.
λ(feet) = 984/Freq(MHz)
- B.
λ(feet) = 936/Freq(MHz)
- C.
λ(feet) = 492/Freq(MHz)
- D.
λ(feet) = 466/Freq(MHz)
- 82.
- A.
Oscillation
- B.
Modulation.
- C.
Propagation.
- D.
Amplification.
- 83.For amplitude modulation (AM), the amplitude of what is varied?
- A.
Radio frequency (RF) carrier.
- B.
Intelligence.
- C.
Bandwidth.
- D.
Pulse.
- 84.
- A.
Frequency.
- B.
Amplitude.
- C.
Phased
- D.
Pulse.
- 85.
- A.
Duplex only.
- B.
Half duplex only.
- C.
Duplex and half duplex.
- D.
Simplex and half duplex.
- 86.
- A.
Duplex only.
- B.
Simplex and duplex.
- C.
Half duplex and duplex.
- D.
Half duplex and simplex.
- 87.In an amplitude modulation (AM) transmitter, the radio frequency (RF) carrier makes up one of the two basic stages. What is the other?
- A.
Audio frequency.
- B.
Modulation
- C.
Intelligence.
- D.
Sideband.
- 88.In amplitude modulation (AM) operation, at 100 percent modulation, what percentage of the transmitter's power is contained in the lower sideband (LSB)?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
- 89.The functions of the single sideband (SSB) balanced modulator are to
- A.
Develop the modulation envelope and eliminate the radio frequency (RF) carrier
- B.
Amplify the input from the microphone and develop the modulation envelope.
- C.
Amplify the RF oscillator input and eliminate one of the sidebands.
- D.
Eliminate the RF carrier and eliminate one of the sidebands.
- 90.
- A.
Both the upper sideband and lower sideband
- B.
Sidebands that have amplitudes of at least 1 percent of the modulated carrier amplitude.
- C.
Sidebands that have amplitudes of at least 1 percent of the unmodulated carrier amplitude.
- D.
Sidebands that have amplitudes of at least 25 percent of the unmodulated carrier amplitude.
- 91.
- A.
Sideband only.
- B.
Sideband and intermediate.
- C.
Pulse only.
- D.
Pulse and intermediate.
- 92.In the basic amplitude modulation (AM) receiver, how is the local oscillator (LO) tuned?
- A.
Automatically tuned with the radio frequency (RF) amplifier, the LO maintains a signal of varying amplitude at the received RF frequency.
- B.
Automatically tuned with the RF amplifier, the LO maintains a signal of constant amplitude at a frequency above or below the received RF.
- C.
Separately tuned with the RF amplifier, the LO maintains a signal of constant amplitude above or below the received RF.
- D.
Separately tuned from the RF amplifier, the LO maintains a signal of varying amplitude at a frequency above or below the received RF.
- 93.
- A.
Mixer.
- B.
Detector.
- C.
Local oscillator.
- D.
Intermediate frequency amplifier.
- 94.
- A.
Local oscillator (LO).
- B.
Radio frequency (RF) amplifier.
- C.
SSB detector.
- D.
Beat frequency oscillator (BFO).
- 95.
- A.
Limiter and discriminator.
- B.
Second mixer and detector.
- C.
Amplifier and local oscillator.
- D.
Beat frequency oscillator and first mixer.
- 96.
- A.
Limiter.
- B.
Detector.
- C.
Amplifier.
- D.
Discriminator
- 97.
- A.
Pulse-code.
- B.
Pulse-phase.
- C.
Pulse-duration.
- D.
Pulse-frequency
- 98.
- A.
Pulse-code.
- B.
Pulse-phase
- C.
Pulse-duration.
- D.
Pulse-amplitude.
- 99.
- A.
Cross talk.
- B.
Internal noise.
- C.
External noise.
- D.
Thermal noise.
- 100.
- A.
Watts.
- B.
Volts.
- C.
Microwatts.
- D.
Microvolts.
- 101.
- A.
Sensitivity.
- B.
Selectivity.
- C.
Fade margin.
- D.
Thermal noise.
- 102.
- A.
Electron.
- B.
Thermal
- C.
Sensitivity.
- D.
Frequency threshold.
- 103.Two-wire transmission lines exhibit the properties of a circuit that contains what electronic components?
- A.
Capacitors, inductors, and diodes
- B.
Capacitors, inductors, and resistors.
- C.
Inductors, transformers, and resistors.
- D.
Inductors, transformers, and diodes.
- 104.
- A.
Capacitance.
- B.
Inductance
- C.
Reactance.
- D.
Resistance
- 105.Standing waves are caused by the
- A.
Received wave combining with the traveling wave.
- B.
Received wave combining with the transmitted wave.
- C.
Reflected wave combining with the transmitted wave.
- D.
Traveling wave combining with the transmitted wave.
- 106.An impedance mismatch between the antenna and its transmission line will likely result in
- A.
Standing waves that reinforce the transmitted energy.
- B.
Traveling waves that reinforce the transmitted energy.
- C.
Standing waves that destructively interfere with the transmitted energy.
- D.
Traveling waves that destructively interfere with the transmitted energy.
- 107.Normally, which ratio is considered a good voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)?
- A.
1.5:1
- B.
15:1
- C.
150:1
- D.
1,500:1
- 108.The standing wave ratio (SWR) formula is
- A.
SWR = Z(larger)/z(smaller)
- B.
SWR = z(smaller)/Z(larger)
- C.
SWR = Z(larger)xz(smaller)
- D.
SWR = sqrt(Z(Larger))x sqrt(z(smaller))
- 109.Which transmission line can exhibit low radio frequency (RF) signal attenuation, but is subject to noise and high radiation losses due to its lack of shielding?
- A.
Waveguides.
- B.
Coaxial cables.
- C.
Two-wire open line.
- D.
Fiber optic transmission lines.
- 110.
- A.
Coaxial.
- B.
Two-wire ribbon.
- C.
Twisted pair transmission.
- D.
Shielded pair transmission.
- 111.
- A.
Rigid coax.
- B.
Flexible coax.
- C.
Semi-rigid coax.
- D.
Two-wire open line.
- 112.
- A.
Waveguide.
- B.
Shielded pair.
- C.
Coaxial cable.
- D.
Two-wire open line.
- 113.
- A.
Freon.
- B.
Silver.
- C.
Inert gases.
- D.
Brass coating.
- 114.
- A.
Only expensive elliptical waveguides work.
- B.
The large physical size makes the waveguide impractical.
- C.
Massive copper losses cause excessive signal attenuation.
- D.
To prevent arcing, the waveguide has to be pressurized with inert gas.
- 115.
- A.
Electric.
- B.
Magnetic
- C.
Induction.
- D.
Radiation.
- 116.
- A.
Circular
- B.
Vertical
- C.
Elliptical
- D.
Horizontal
- 117.An advantage of horizontal polarization is that signals
- A.
Travel over considerable distances
- B.
Transmit great distances over bodies of water
- C.
Experience less attenuation due to buildings and dense forests.
- D.
Experience less interference from Television and frequency modulation stations.
- 118.Which action is not a propagation effect of an electromagnetic (EM) wave?
- A.
Reflection
- B.
Refraction.
- C.
Deflection.
- D.
Diffraction.
- 119.
- A.
Reflection.
- B.
Refraction.
- C.
Diffraction.
- D.
Multipathing
- 120.
- A.
Direct.
- B.
Surface.
- C.
Reflected.
- D.
Tropospheric.
- 121.Normally, what component of the ground wave causes multipath fading?
- A.
Direct.
- B.
Surface
- C.
Reflected
- D.
Tropospheric.
- 122.Which type of precipitation attenuates radio frequency (RF) energy just like rain?
- A.
Ice
- B.
Fog
- C.
Hail
- D.
Snow
- 123.An antenna transfers radio frequency (RF) energy from space to its terminals with the same efficiency that it transfers RF energy from its terminals into space defines
- A.
Gain
- B.
Directivity
- C.
Reciprocity
- D.
Isotropic readiator
- 124.The scientific standard for antenna beamwidth is measured at the half-power point in
- A.
Hertz
- B.
Degrees
- C.
Milliwatts
- D.
Microvolts
- 125.The frequency bandwidth for most resonant antennas is plus or minus what percent of the design frequency?
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
20
- D.
50
- 126.For a given frequency, what is the shortest length an antenna can be made resonant?
- A.
Quarter wavelength grounded at one end.
- B.
Half wavelength grounded at one end.
- C.
Two full wavelengths.
- D.
One full wavelength.
- 127.Normally, the best way to position a horizontal dipole for a short-range net that requires high take-off angles is
- A.
One full wavelength above the ground.
- B.
One-half wavelength above the ground.
- C.
One-quarter wavelength above the ground.
- D.
Three-quarters wavelength above the ground.
- 128.
- A.
A delta matching device is adjusted for resonance.
- B.
Quarter-wave antennas are made of a special type alloy.
- C.
The end ground’s high conductivity acts as an electrical mirror image.
- D.
Its transmission line is routed so that it acts as the other half of the antenna.
- 129.
- A.
Produce lower radiation angles.
- B.
Produce higher radiation angles.
- C.
Route disruptive multipath signals to ground.
- D.
Discourage animals from climbing up to the radiating element.
- 130.At what wavelength(s) does a long-wire antenna exhibit a pronounced power gain on its end lobes?
- A.
At least one.
- B.
At least one-half.
- C.
At least two.
- D.
At least one-quarter.
- 131.The polarization and directional properties of the helical antenna are
- A.
Vertical and bidirectional
- B.
Circular and unidirectional.
- C.
Horizontal and bidirectional.
- D.
Vertical and omnidirectional.
- 132.Normally, what kind of large bandwidth antenna is designed to impedance match waveguides to free space?
- A.
Horn
- B.
Dipole
- C.
Helical.
- D.
Marconi.
- 133.
- A.
Size
- B.
Gain
- C.
Reciprocity.
- D.
Its intended use.
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