PEDS
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- 1.Your patient has just been diagnosed with hypercholesterolemia. What diet would you choose for this patient?
- A.
White processed flour, starchy foods, corn oil.
- B.
High protein foods such as marble meats and sunflower oils.
- C.
Whole grains, fruits, vegetables, olive or canola oil.
- D.
Gluten free foods only.
- 2.You suspect that a child that is 2 years old has RSV based on what presenting symptoms? Select all that apply.
- A.
Temperature instability
- B.
Rales, Rhonchi, and expiratory wheezing
- C.
Uncontrollable sneezing
- D.
Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/minute
- E.
Apneic episodes
- F.
Lethargy and decreased LOC
- G.
Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
- 3.You should use a rear-facing care seat until the child weighs what and is how old?
- A.
40 lbs. and 9 months old
- B.
40 lbs. and 1 year old
- C.
20 lbs. and 1 year old
- D.
20 lbs. and 9 months old
- 4.You have a patient with status asthmaticus that appears to be agitated and confused when you make your rounds. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A.
Report it to the HCP.
- B.
Request a report of the ABGs.
- C.
Administer the Peak Flow Meter
- D.
Administer Albuterol STAT.
- 5.You are assigned to a patient with a flat, broad forehead, flat nasal bridge, protruding tongue, small head, upward slanting eyes with an epicanthal fold, small, short ears that are low-set and Brushfield spots. Their hands also have a simian crease. What do you suspect this patient to have?
- A.
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura
- B.
Adolescent Depression
- C.
Suicidal Tendencies
- D.
Down Syndrome
- 6.Which statement is true about a person with Down Syndrome?
- A.
They are often considered to be difficult to engage.
- B.
They can work part-time after school.
- C.
They should never be allowed around animals.
- D.
They are unable to learn.
- 7.Which one do you like?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
Option 2
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
- 8.Which medication do you anticipate will be prescribed for a patient with Rheumatic Fever?
- A.
Vancomycin
- B.
Bactrim
- C.
Penicillin
- D.
Valium
- 9.When should your first dental visit be?
- A.
6 months
- B.
8 months
- C.
12 months
- D.
15 months
- 10.When should you schedule blood glucose monitoring?
- A.
Early morning
- B.
Mid morning
- C.
Evening
- D.
Before bed
- 11.When is Turner Syndrome most likely to be diagnosed?
- A.
At birth
- B.
Adulthood
- C.
Puberty
- D.
3 years of age
- 12.When is pyloric stenosis seen?
- A.
Soon after birth
- B.
Between 6-12 months
- C.
Between 3 and 6 months
- D.
After 2 years of age
- 13.What would you use to treat RSV? Select all that apply.
- A.
Hydration therapy
- B.
Supplemental oxygen
- C.
Nebulized bronchodilators, epinephrine, and steroids
- D.
Possible mechanical ventilation
- E.
Ribavirin
- F.
Cephalosporins
- G.
Isolation
- H.
RSV-IGIV and Palivizumab
- 14.What would you tell a patient with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP) to avoid?
- A.
Constipation and dental floss
- B.
Brushing your teeth
- C.
Bathing more than once a day
- D.
Fatty foods
- 15.What would you give someone that had Cystic Fibrosis?
- A.
Salt supplements and pancreatic enzymes
- B.
Aspirin and ACE inhibitors
- C.
Pancreatic enzymes only
- D.
Influenza vaccine
- 16.What type of seizure is the patient is experiencing if the have an altered LOC and amnesia?
- A.
Complex Partial
- B.
Simple Partial
- C.
Absent
- D.
Tonic-Clonic
- 17.What type of seizure is the patient experiencing is they have blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements?
- A.
Absent
- B.
Tonic-Clonic
- C.
Myoclonic
- D.
Complex Partial
- 18.What type of seizure is the patient experiences if they are seeing flashing lights, smells, auditory hallucinations, sweating, flushing, pupil dilation, dream states, and anger fear?
- A.
Myoclonic Seizure
- B.
Absent Seizure
- C.
Complex Partial Seizure
- D.
Simple Partial Seizure
- 19.What type of headache is most common in children?
- A.
Sinus
- B.
Tension
- C.
Migraine
- D.
Lethargic
- 20.What type of drugs can cause idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
- A.
Sulfa drugs
- B.
Cephalosporins
- C.
Penicillin
- D.
NSAIDs
- 21.What type of diet would a person with Congenital Heart Defect be on?
- A.
Low sodium, high potassium
- B.
Low sodium, low potassium
- C.
Avoid polyunsaturated fats
- D.
No sugar
- 22.What type of diet should the patient who just had a tonsillectomy have?
- A.
Clear liquid
- B.
Full liquid
- C.
Ice cream only
- D.
Complete carbs
- 23.What type of diet should a patient with heart failure be on?
- A.
Low-calorie, high-protein
- B.
High-calorie
- C.
Decreased calcium
- D.
Decreased sodium
- 24.What type of diet is prescribed for a patient with cerebral palsy?
- A.
High-protein
- B.
High-calorie
- C.
High-carbohydrates
- D.
Low-calorie, high-protein
- 25.What type of diet is prescribed for a child with HIV/AIDS?
- A.
High calorie, high protein
- B.
Low calorie, high protein
- C.
Low calorie, low protein
- D.
High fatty foods
- 26.What type of diet does the child with nephrotic syndrome have?
- A.
High calcium
- B.
High protein, no salt
- C.
Low potassium, high-protein
- D.
Moderate protein and low salt
- 27.What type of brace is prescribed for Scoliosis that has a deformity of 30 to 40 degrees?
- A.
Synopti
- B.
Pivlak
- C.
Ruben
- D.
Milwaukee
- 28.What treatment options are correct for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
- A.
Avoid fatty foods
- B.
Corticosteroids
- C.
Immunosuppressants
- D.
Intravenous Immune Globulin
- E.
Splenectomy
- F.
Chemotherapy agent vincristine
- G.
Anti-D
- H.
Epsilon-aminocaproic acid
- 29.What treatment options are available for Turner Syndrome?
- A.
Human growth hormone injections
- B.
Estrogen replacement
- C.
Surgical removal of streak gonads
- D.
Cortisone
- 30.What should you monitor in nephrotic syndrome?
- A.
Albumin
- B.
Potassium
- C.
Chloride
- D.
Calcium
- 31.What presenting symptoms would you see in a patient with asthma?
- A.
Shortened expiration
- B.
Recurrent productive cough
- C.
Decreased breath sounds
- D.
Recurrent nonproductive cough
- E.
Tachycardia
- 32.What position should you place infants while sleeping?
- A.
Prone
- B.
Trendelenburg
- C.
Supine
- D.
Side-lying with pillows
- 33.What position should you place an infant with gastroesophageal reflux?
- A.
Prone
- B.
Simms
- C.
Trendelenburg
- D.
Side-lying
- 34.What position should the patient that just had a infratentorial craniotomy be placed in?
- A.
Flat or on either side
- B.
Simms
- C.
Side-lying
- D.
Upright
- 35.What position should the patient be in after an appendectomy?
- A.
Semi-Fowler's
- B.
Fowler's
- C.
Simms
- D.
Prone
- 36.What is the treatment for strabismus?
- A.
Patch stronger eye
- B.
Patch weaker eye
- C.
Allow extra time to read
- D.
Botulinum toxin
- 37.What is the most common problem (health-wise) that a person with Down Syndrome has?
- A.
Lung defects
- B.
Short stature that leads to osteoarthritis later on
- C.
Brain cancer
- D.
Heart defects
- 38.What is the key sign with appendicitis?
- A.
RLQ pain
- B.
Pain in the upper abdomen
- C.
Vomiting
- D.
Headache
- 39.What is the emergency treatment for status epilepticus?
- A.
Diazepam, lorazepam, fosphenytoin, phenobarbital, 50% dextrose IV, and thiamine IV.
- B.
Diazepam, phenobarbital, 75% dextrose, and routine blood monitoring.
- C.
Haloperidol and thiamine IV.
- D.
Supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula at 2L for 2 hours followed by an MDI.
- 40.What is the correct respiratory rate for a newborn?
- A.
30 to 50
- B.
30 to 60
- C.
20 to 50
- D.
20 to 60
- 41.What is the correct respiratory rate for a 5 to 12 year old?
- A.
15 to 25
- B.
10 to 20
- C.
20 to 25
- D.
20 to 30
- 42.What is the correct respiratory rate for a 1 to 4 year old?
- A.
20 to 40
- B.
10 to 40
- C.
30 to 40
- D.
40 to 50
- 43.What is the correct pulse rate for a newborn?
- A.
100 to 140
- B.
120 to 140
- C.
100 to160
- D.
90 to 100
- 44.What is the correct pulse rate for a 5 to 12 year old?
- A.
80 to 100
- B.
80 to 110
- C.
70 to 115
- D.
70 to 110
- 45.What is the correct pulse rate for a 1 to 4 year old?
- A.
80 to 140
- B.
70 to 100
- C.
70 to 110
- D.
80 to 110
- 46.What is the correct blood pressure for a newborn?
- A.
50 to 100/30 to 45
- B.
50 to 70/30 to 50
- C.
60 to 70/30 to 40
- D.
60 to 80/40 to 50
- 47.What is the correct blood pressure for a 5 to 12 year old?
- A.
100 to 110/56 to 60
- B.
90 to 100/56 to 60
- C.
80 to 100/60 to 65
- D.
70 to 90/60 to 65
- 48.What is the correct blood pressure for a 1 to 4 year old?
- A.
80 to 89/60 to 70
- B.
90 to 99/60 to 65
- C.
70 to 80/60 to 70
- D.
90 to 99/50 to 55
- 49.What is the average IQ for a person with Down Syndrome?
- A.
20-40
- B.
20-70
- C.
40-90
- D.
40-80
- 50.What is the acceptable cholesterol level?
- A.
Less than 100
- B.
Less than 160
- C.
Less than 140
- D.
Less than 170
- 51.What is Ortolani's sign?
- A.
Seen in infants less than 1 year of age. Place on stomach, legs flexed outward and you will hear a click sound on adduction.
- B.
Seen in infants less than 24 months old. Place on back, legs flexed and you will hear a click sound during abduction.
- C.
Seen in children over the age of 4 only. Decerebrate positioning.
- D.
None of the above.
- 52.What can you offer to infants that are teething?
- A.
Cold teething ring
- B.
Warm teething ring
- C.
Soft pillows
- D.
Fingers
- 53.What are the signs of hypoglycemia?
- A.
Lethargy
- B.
Hunger
- C.
Increased urinary output
- D.
Sweating
- E.
Pallor
- F.
Muscle twitching
- G.
Behavioral problems
- H.
Tremors
- I.
Seizures
- J.
Coma
- 54.What are the most common symptoms seen in a child with type 1 diabetes?
- A.
Enuresis, irritability, and unusual fatigue
- B.
Weakness, fatigue, nocturia
- C.
Hunger, weight gain, and unusual sleeping pattern
- D.
None of the above
- 55.What are the first symptoms of Meningitis?
- A.
High fever
- B.
Diarrhea
- C.
Chills
- D.
Malaise
- 56.Turner Syndrome can be distinguished by what symptoms?
- A.
Low-set hairline at nape of neck
- B.
Edema of hands and feet
- C.
Webbed and short neck
- D.
Difficulty breathing
- E.
Unusual coughing pattern
- F.
Shield-shaped chest with widely spaced nipples
- G.
Short stature
- H.
Tall stature
- I.
Multiple pigmented nevi
- J.
Immature external genitalia
- K.
Streak gonads
- 57.The therapeutic serum level for digoxin in infants is what?
- A.
0.8 to 2.0
- B.
0.1 to 1.0
- C.
0.5 to 1.25
- D.
0.1 to 1.25
- 58.The Pavlik harness is prescribed for an infant that is under 6 months of age. How long will it be worn?
- A.
Full time for 3-6 months.
- B.
Full time for 9 months.
- C.
Part-time for 3-6 months.
- D.
Part-time for 9 months.
- 59.The patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura has a platelet count of 100,000 that fluctuates up to 400,000. What does this indicate?
- A.
The patient is declining.
- B.
The patient needs a stool softener so they will not strain any more.
- C.
The patient needs a blood transfusion STAT.
- D.
Improvement
- 60.The patient presents to the ER. The patient's parents tell the nurse that the patient started with a loud dry and then had a decrease in his level of consciousness. He had body stiffening, tongue biting, incontinence, labored breathing, apnea, cyanosis, drowsiness, fatigue, headache, muscle soreness, and weakness upon awakening. You recognize this as a seizure. What type of seizure did he have?
- A.
Myoclonic
- B.
Complex Partial
- C.
Absent
- D.
Tonic-Clonic
- 61.The patient is diagnosed with Hirschsprung Disease and has a colostomy. The nurse knows that the colostomy is...
- A.
Permanent
- B.
Temporary
- C.
Will need to be in place until surgery
- D.
Will need to be in place until the age of 13
- 62.The patient is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. He has facial edema, proteinuria, hematuria, and oliguria with flexed specific gravity. The nurse also notices his urine is smokey in color, he has joint pain and stiffness. What would the nurse want to check?
- A.
Blood pressure
- B.
Pulse rate
- C.
Respirations
- D.
Urine output
- 63.The patient has been diagnosed with Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus Pharyngitis. The nurse knows that she will need to do discharge teaching before allowing them to return home. What should the nurse make sure to include aside from taking their antibiotics as prescribed?
- A.
Make sure to get your pneumococcal vaccine or this could return within 1 week.
- B.
You may not return to school/work for 2 weeks after finishing your antibiotics.
- C.
Only drink hot liquids such as coffee or tea.
- D.
Discard your toothbrush after taking the antibiotics for 24 hours.
- 64.The only side effect of Glucagon is what?
- A.
Dehydration
- B.
Increased urinary output
- C.
Nausea/Vomiting
- D.
Diarrhea
- 65.The only curative treatment for Hirschsprung Disease is what?
- A.
Physical Therapy
- B.
Well-balanced diet
- C.
Surgery
- D.
There is no curative treatment.
- 66.The nurse would see what sign or symptom that would lead her to believe the child had retinoblastoma?
- A.
No pupil dilation
- B.
Delayed pupil reaction
- C.
Grayish pupil
- D.
Whitish "glow" in pupil
- 67.The nurse would intervene if she heard a new nurse telling the parents of a child diagnosed with Turner Syndrome that:
- A.
Turner Syndrome occurs in females.
- B.
Turner Syndrome occurs in males.
- C.
One X chromosome is missing from all the cells.
- D.
This occurs in 1 in 3,000 live births.
- 68.The nurse should intervene if she sees the new nurse instructing the patient that just had a tonsillectomy to what?
- A.
Deep breathe
- B.
Ambulate
- C.
Wipe the forehead with a cool rag
- D.
Cough
- 69.The nurse knows to avoid which medication in respiratory infections?
- A.
Aspirin
- B.
Penicillin
- C.
Bactrim
- D.
Tylenol
- 70.The nurse knows that you should avoid which medication with hemophilia?
- A.
Aspirin
- B.
Tylenol
- C.
Bactrim
- D.
Valium
- 71.The nurse knows that you should avoid what with Meningitis?
- A.
Narcotics
- B.
Analgesics
- C.
Antibiotics
- D.
Fluids
- 72.The nurse knows that which group of people are more likely to get Ulcerative Colitis?
- A.
Muslims
- B.
Christians
- C.
Monks
- D.
Jewish
- 73.The nurse knows that what is a complication of asthma?
- A.
Respiratory Acidosis
- B.
Respiratory Alkalosis
- C.
Metabolic Acidosis
- D.
Metabolic Alkalosis
- 74.The nurse knows that type 1 diabetes in a child will differ in an adult how?
- A.
The child will gain weight extremely fast although their hunger has increased
- B.
A child will have rapidly developing symptoms, muscle wasting, and loss of fat.
- C.
The child will not have polydipsia, polyphagia, and polyuria.
- D.
The child is almost impossible to diagnose due to their young age.
- 75.The nurse knows that the patient with otitis media will be given antibiotics of Amoxil and then Augmentin. How long is it before the antibiotics are started?
- A.
Immediately
- B.
1 day
- C.
2-3 days
- D.
1 week
- 76.The nurse knows that the child returning from the OR after a craniotomy will need to be monitored for what?
- A.
Hyperthermia and ICP
- B.
Hypothermia
- C.
ICP and decreased blood pressure
- D.
Sluggish pulse rate
- 77.The nurse knows that the child in a hip spica cast will need to placed in what position to eat?
- A.
Trendelenburg
- B.
Simms
- C.
Prone
- D.
Side-lying
- 78.The nurse knows that she should take which pulse for 1 full minute before giving digoxin?
- A.
Brachial
- B.
Apical
- C.
Carotid
- D.
Femoral
- 79.The nurse knows that during increased ICP the infant will have bulging fontanels, a high-pitched cry, and poor feeding. The nurse will also recognize this:
- A.
Increased HR, Increased RR, Increased BP
- B.
Increased HR, Decreased RR, Increased BP
- C.
Decreased HR, Decreased RR, Increased BP
- D.
Decreased HR, Decreased RR, Decreased BP
- 80.The nurse knows that Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is evident at what age?
- A.
1 year old
- B.
2-3 years old
- C.
3-4 years old
- D.
At birth
- 81.The nurse knows that an oral temperature is only taken on children older than what?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 82.The nurse knows that a patient with which vaccinations is least likely to have an asthma attack?
- A.
Pneumococcal and influenza
- B.
Pneumococcal and Hep B
- C.
Hep B and Hep A
- D.
Influenza and Dtap
- 83.The nurse knows a complication of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is death in the teens or early 20s. What other complication does the nurse know will happen?
- A.
Inability to ambulate at 11-12 years
- B.
Inability to control speech pattern
- C.
Inability to breathe on their own
- D.
Inability to remember short-term memories
- 84.The nurse is told the child has a Wilm's Tumor in stage 1. What does that mean?
- A.
Extends beyond kidney, excision is possible
- B.
Spread to abdomen and lymph nodes
- C.
Involves both kidneys
- D.
Limited to 1 kidney, can be excised
- 85.The nurse is told the child has a Wilm's Tumor in stage 2. What does that mean?
- A.
Involves both kidneys
- B.
Metastasized to lung, liver, bone, and brain
- C.
Extends beyond kidney, excision possible.
- D.
Limited to 1 kidney, can be excised
- 86.The nurse is told the child has a Wilm's Tumor in stage 3. What does that mean?
- A.
Limited to 1 kidney, can be excised
- B.
Spread to abdomen and lymph nodes
- C.
Metastasized to lung, liver, bone, and brain
- D.
Involves both kidneys
- 87.The nurse is told the child has a Wilm's Tumor in stage 4. What does that mean?
- A.
Involves both kidneys
- B.
Limited to 1 kidney, can be excised
- C.
Extends beyond kidney, excision possible
- D.
Metastasized to lung, liver, bone, and brain
- 88.The nurse is told the child has a Wilm's Tumor in stage 5. What does that mean?
- A.
Involves both kidneys
- B.
Spread to abdomen and lymph nodes
- C.
Extends beyond kidney, excision possible
- D.
Limited to 1 kidney, can be excised
- 89.The nurse is testing a child's hearing and they turn their head side to side when the sound is made at the level of the ear. What age would this be normal for?
- A.
Newborn
- B.
2 to 3 months
- C.
4 to 6 months
- D.
8 months
- 90.The nurse is testing a child's hearing and the infant responds to own name. What age would this be appropriate for?
- A.
4 to 6 months
- B.
9 months
- C.
1 year
- D.
6 to 8 months
- 91.The nurse is testing a child's hearing and the infant is able to locate the sound by turning the head side to side and looking in the correct direction. At what age is this appropriate?
- A.
3 to 4 months
- B.
2 to 3 months
- C.
8 months
- D.
6 months
- 92.The nurse is planning on giving an infant digoxin and their pulse rate is too low. What would be considered too low in the infant?
- A.
Less than 90
- B.
Less than 110
- C.
Less than 120
- D.
Less than 70
- 93.The nurse is evaluating a 1 year old's hearing and it is abnormal. What would be the correct intervention?
- A.
Inform the parents that their child will need to be retested in 3 months
- B.
Inform the parents that their child will need to be retested in 1 week
- C.
Inform the parents that this is nothing to worry about and usually resolves itself
- D.
None of the above
- 94.The nurse has a patient with vesicoureteral reflux. The nurse knows what about this disease?
- A.
It usually resolves itself.
- B.
It cannot be resolved without surgery.
- C.
It is a very serious and life-threatening situation.
- D.
It involves only the small bowel.
- 95.The nurse has a patient with a head injury that needs stitches. The correct aftercare technique would be what?
- A.
Clean the open wounds using the sterile technique
- B.
Clean the open wounds using the clean technique
- C.
Allow the doctor to clean the wounds
- D.
None of the above
- 96.The nurse expects the child with gastroesophageal reflux to have which signs and symptoms?
- A.
Vomiting after meals that is not projectile, irritability, and apnea.
- B.
Vomiting, dyspnea, and tachycardia.
- C.
Projectile vomiting, lethargy, and confusion.
- D.
Vomiting and diarrhea.
- 97.The nurse admits a child to the hospital. She has a mosaic pattern to the bones, blue sclera of the eyes, dental deformities, and progressive hearing loss. Before even reading the diagnosis the nurse would suspect what?
- A.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
- B.
Osteoarthitis
- C.
Osteomyeltitis
- D.
Rheumatoid Arthritis
- 98.The infant with iron deficiency anemia will need to drink how much formula per day?
- A.
1 liter
- B.
2 liters
- C.
12 fluid ounces
- D.
1 gallon
- 99.The infant is dehydrated and has been vomiting. How long should you withhold food and fluids?
- A.
3 hours
- B.
1 hour
- C.
2 hours
- D.
You should never withhold food or fluids
- 100.The client presents to the ER with a pale appearance, fatigue, anorexia, bruises easily, and petechiae. The nurse also is told that the child has had a lot of infections lately and does not do well with antibiotics. The nurse suspects anemia. What type of anemia is being described?
- A.
Aplastic anemia
- B.
Pernicious anemia
- C.
Iron-deficiency anemia
- D.
None of the above
- 101.The child with the head injury is complaining of a headache during the observation period. What would be inappropriate by the nurse?
- A.
Give the child a game to play with his mother
- B.
Offer a distraction by turning on the tv
- C.
Offer the child some water
- D.
Give a prescribed analgesic
- 102.The child with the head injury has vomited 3 times in the past hour. What would be the best action by the nurse?
- A.
Notify the HCP
- B.
Offer the prescribed antiemetic
- C.
Take the client's blood pressure
- D.
Take the client's temperature
- 103.The child with gastroesophageal reflux is having abdominal discomfort and distention. What should the nurse tell the parent of the child?
- A.
Nothing because it violates HIPAA.
- B.
This is completely normal.
- C.
We have to get him into surgery now!
- D.
I wouldn't worry too much. It's probably just something he ate earlier.
- 104.The child with dysplasia of the hip would need nursing care. What would the nurse do in terms of care?
- A.
Apply oxygen as needed.
- B.
Passive ROM
- C.
Turn every 2 hours then every 4 hours at night.
- D.
Active ROM
- 105.The child with DKA will have what symptoms?
- A.
Kussmaul's respirations
- B.
Fruity breath
- C.
Halitosis
- D.
Dehydration
- 106.The child diagnosed with pyloric stenosis is scheduled for surgery. You have already assessed the abdominal and cardiovascular status. What would you do next?
- A.
Position child on right side
- B.
Take the blood pressure
- C.
Passive ROM
- D.
Active ROM
- 107.The child diagnosed with central precocious puberty is getting discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse should intervene if she hears the nurse say what?
- A.
You can pick up your daughter's prescription of oral contraceptives as soon as you leave here.
- B.
Your child will receive a monthly injection of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone.
- C.
This disease resolves at puberty.
- D.
Your child may have a short stature but they will still be fertile.
- 108.SIDS peaks at what age?
- A.
8 months
- B.
2 to 4 months
- C.
1 month
- D.
4 to 6 months
- 109.Sickle Cell Disease is seen primarily in what race?
- A.
African Americans
- B.
Native Americans
- C.
Caucasians
- D.
Asians
- 110.Select the treatment regimen for a child with cerebral palsy.
- A.
Baclofen pump for 3-5 years
- B.
ROM
- C.
Splints
- D.
Strong antibiotics
- E.
Dilantin
- F.
Protective headgear
- 111.Select the signs and symptoms of nephrotic syndrome.
- A.
Oliguria with dark urine
- B.
Edema
- C.
Decreased urine output
- D.
Ascites
- 112.Select the signs and symptoms of Meningitis.
- A.
Headache
- B.
Fever
- C.
Photophobia
- D.
Option4
- E.
Nuchal rigidity
- F.
Kernig's sign
- G.
Brudzinski's sign
- 113.Select the signs and symptoms of Hirschsprung Disease.
- A.
Chronic constipation
- B.
Chronic diarrhea
- C.
Abdominal distention
- D.
Abdominal rigidity
- E.
Ribbon-like stools
- 114.Select the signs and symptoms for intussusception.
- A.
Pain
- B.
Palpable sausage-shaped abdominal mass
- C.
Currant-jelly stools
- D.
Anorexia
- 115.Select the risk factors for osteomyelitis.
- A.
Respiratory infections
- B.
Malnutrition
- C.
Old age
- D.
Obesity
- E.
Immunosuppressants
- F.
Chronic illness
- 116.Select the nursing care you would give to a patient with Hirschsprung Disease.
- A.
Option1
- B.
Enemas
- C.
Low-fiber, high-calorie, high-protein diet
- D.
Option4
- E.
Possible TPN
- F.
Measure abdominal girth
- 117.Select the medications that are used for Asthma.
- A.
Albuterol and Ipatropium
- B.
Epinephrine and terbutaline
- C.
Corticosteroids
- D.
Theophylline and Aminophylline
- E.
Bactrim and Penicillin
- F.
Cromolyn and nedocromil
- 118.Select the illnesses that would be considered Droplet.
- A.
TB
- B.
Influenza
- C.
Meningitis
- D.
Chickenpox
- 119.Select the illnesses that would be considered Contact.
- A.
VRE
- B.
C. diff
- C.
RSV
- D.
Impetigo
- E.
Chickenpox
- 120.Select the illnesses that would be considered Airborne.
- A.
TB
- B.
Shingles
- C.
Influenza
- D.
Chickenpox
- 121.Select the correct nursing care for the client with a head injury.
- A.
Check papillary reaction to light every 4 hours for 48 hours
- B.
Allow the client to sleep for 6 hours
- C.
Apply ice pack to the head
- D.
Give prescribed analgesics
- 122.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for a 10 month old.
- A.
Vocalizes 1 or 2 words
- B.
2 words besides mama and dada
- C.
1,500 words
- D.
Names commonplace objects
- 123.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for a 12 month old.
- A.
Vocalizes 1 or 2 words
- B.
Names commonplace objects
- C.
Scribbles
- D.
2 words besides mama and dada
- 124.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for a 15 month old.
- A.
Vocalizes 1 or 2 words
- B.
Names commonplace objects
- C.
2 words besides mama and dada
- D.
Scribbles
- 125.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for an 18 month old.
- A.
Vocalizes 1 or 2 words
- B.
2,100 words
- C.
1,500 words
- D.
Scribbles
- 126.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for a 21 month old.
- A.
Scribbles
- B.
1,500 words
- C.
300 words, obeys easy commands
- D.
900 words, uses sentences
- 127.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for a 3 year old.
- A.
Scribbles
- B.
1,500 words
- C.
900 words, uses sentences
- D.
2,100 words
- 128.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for a 4 year old
- A.
1,500 words
- B.
3,000 words
- C.
2,100 words
- D.
Names commonplace objects
- 129.Select the correct answer when it comes to language development for a 5 year old.
- A.
2,100 words
- B.
3,500 words
- C.
10,000 words
- D.
Names commonplace objects
- 130.Select the appropriate nursing care for type 1 spinal muscular atrophy.
- A.
Change infant's position frequently
- B.
Frequent suctioning
- C.
Feed slowly to prevent aspiration
- D.
Lie on the back
- 131.Select the appropriate nursing care for the child with aplastic anemia.
- A.
Use the Z-track method
- B.
Limit needle sticks for blood
- C.
Pad crib
- D.
Soft toothbrush
- 132.Select the appropriate nursing care for retinoblastoma.
- A.
Instruct parent's how to care for the prosthesis
- B.
Irrigate the empty eye socket with saline and apply antibiotic ointment before dressing changes
- C.
Apply antibiotic ointment before bed
- D.
Give oral antibiotics with food
- 133.Select the appropriate nursing care for a child with osteomyelitis.
- A.
Bedrest
- B.
Crutches
- C.
Analgesics
- D.
Antibiotics
- E.
Support extremity with pillows
- F.
Splints
- G.
Intake and Output
- H.
High-protein diet with carbohydrates, minerals, and vitamins
- 134.Select the appropriate care for a child receiving oxygen.
- A.
Place the tank in an upright position
- B.
Check patient's pajama and bedding for moisture
- C.
Allow parent to play games with the child in the tent
- D.
Allow the child to leave the tent for only half the day
- E.
Leave the flaps closed on the tent
- 135.Select all the treatments for Sickle Cell Disease.
- A.
Bone marrow transplant
- B.
Hydroxyurea
- C.
Arginine
- D.
Long-term RBC transfusion
- 136.Select all the nursing care you would provide for vesicoureteral reflux.
- A.
Double void
- B.
Only take bed baths
- C.
Low-grade antibiotics and antispasmodics
- D.
Avoid fatty foods
- E.
Avoid baths
- F.
Monitor drainage first 24 hours then every 4 hours
- 137.Select all the interventions you would do for ADHD.
- A.
Limit Setting
- B.
Permissive setting
- C.
Here and now focus
- D.
Give feedback
- E.
Intervene when hyperactivity is evident
- F.
Channel excess energy
- 138.Select all the interventions you would do for a patient with Congenital Heart Defect.
- A.
Monitor vital signs and heart rhythm
- B.
Monitor intake and output
- C.
Provide calm environment and promote rest
- D.
Promote exercise
- E.
Administer digoxin, iron, diuretics, and potassium
- 139.Select all that apply for postoperative nursing care for pyloric stenosis.
- A.
Check incision site
- B.
Strict aseptic technique for all care
- C.
Provide parenteral fluids
- D.
Monitor warmth
- E.
Small and frequent feeding of glucose water or electrolyte solution for 4 to 6 hours
- F.
Monitor for dehydration
- G.
Start regular formula in 24 hours if clear fluids tolerated
- 140.Select all of the treatments for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy.
- A.
Intensive Physical Therapy
- B.
Range-of-Motion
- C.
Monitor cardiac and respiratory status
- D.
Encourage only deep breathing
- E.
Monitor ABGs closely
- F.
Encourage coughing and deep breathing
- G.
Avoid obesity
- 141.Select all of the correct interventions for giving iron salts.
- A.
Dilute in juice
- B.
Dilute in milk
- C.
Dilute with antacids
- D.
Use the Z-track method
- E.
Use a straw when giving orally
- F.
Give with food
- 142.Rheumatic Fever occurs after what?
- A.
Group A Strep
- B.
Group B Strep
- C.
Mono
- D.
RSV
- 143.Pyloric Stenosis is most often seen in?
- A.
Girls 6-12 months
- B.
Boys 6-12 months
- C.
Girls 1 to 6 months
- D.
Boys 1 to 6 months
- 144.Most Down Syndrome children are born to mother who are over what age?
- A.
35
- B.
30
- C.
29
- D.
28
- 145.Iron deficiency anemia in infants is caused by what?
- A.
Malnutrition
- B.
Inability to digest formula
- C.
Excessive intake of formula
- D.
Excessive intake of cow's milk
- 146.In order to decrease reflux the nurse should do what to the infant after feeding?
- A.
Keep them upright for 1 hour
- B.
Place them on their back immediately
- C.
Position them in the Simms position
- D.
Keep them awake for 4 hours afterwards
- 147.In a severe case of RSV what would you expect to see?
- A.
Tachycardia and cyanosis
- B.
Bradycardia and cyanosis
- C.
Wheezing on inspiration
- D.
Incontinence
- 148.If you had to feed an infant small amounts every 2 hours using an enlarged nipple hole what would you think they had been diagnosed with?
- A.
RSV
- B.
Congenital Heart Defect
- C.
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP)
- D.
Pneumonia
- 149.If the patient has Pyloric Stenosis what would you need to watch for?
- A.
Alkalosis and hypokalemia
- B.
Acidosis and hyperkalemia
- C.
Alkalosis and hyperkalemia
- D.
None of the above
- 150.If the patient has otitis media what would you expect the tympanic membrane to look like?
- A.
Bright red
- B.
Pink
- C.
Pearly white
- D.
Pearly gray
- 151.If an adolescent's grades start to decline what should they be screened for?
- A.
Bipolar disorder
- B.
Depression
- C.
Alcohol Use
- D.
Drug Use
- 152.If a child has a head injury and falls asleep how often would they need to be awoken?
- A.
You cannot let them fall asleep
- B.
Every 1-2 hours
- C.
Let them sleep
- D.
Every 6 hours
- 153.Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is more common in what group?
- A.
Children and young women
- B.
The elderly
- C.
Children and young men
- D.
Adolescents
- 154.How should the patient with otitis media be positioned?
- A.
Unaffected side
- B.
Affected side
- C.
Prone
- D.
Trendelenburg
- 155.How many hours a day does someone with Scoliosis have to wear their brace?
- A.
23.5 hours
- B.
23 hours
- C.
20 hours
- D.
The brace should remain on for 24 hours.
- 156.How many chromosomes does someone with Down Syndrome have?
- A.
22
- B.
30
- C.
21
- D.
20
- 157.How long should you monitor the patient who had a recent tonsillectomy?
- A.
24 hours
- B.
6 hours
- C.
12 hours
- D.
4 hours
- 158.How is aplastic anemia diagnosed?
- A.
Bone marrow biopsy
- B.
X-ray
- C.
Iodine drip
- D.
EKG
- 159.How do you screen for RSV?
- A.
Nasal or throat culture
- B.
ECG
- C.
Nasopharyngealoscopy
- D.
PPG test
- 160.Glucagon is giving Subq and IM. What is the onset?
- A.
8 to 10 minutes with the duration of 12 to 27 minutes.
- B.
10 minutes with the duration of 30 minutes
- C.
5 minutes with the duration of 29 minutes
- D.
4-5 minutes with the duration of 29 minutes
- 161.During a Sickle Cell Crisis what treatments would you do?
- A.
Maintaining that the patient is awake
- B.
Sedation
- C.
Analgesia
- D.
Blood transfusions
- E.
Oxygen therapy and analgesics
- F.
NSAIDs
- G.
Oral and IV fluids in large amounts
- 162.At what ages does the child name day, month, season, and produce all language sounds?
- A.
7 years
- B.
8 years
- C.
1 year
- D.
2 years
- 163.At what age is the child fluent in spoken language, reading vocabulary is 50,000 words, oral vocabulary is 7,200 words, and able to use slang terms?
- A.
9 years
- B.
10-13 years
- C.
16 years
- D.
Adulthood
- 164.At what age does the child smile to familiar voices and babble?
- A.
1 year
- B.
18 weeks
- C.
Neonate
- D.
6 weeks
- 165.At what age does the child's words start to emerge and say "dada" and "mama" with meaning?
- A.
40 weeks-1 year
- B.
42 weeks-1 year
- C.
24 months
- D.
24 weeks
- 166.At what age does the child's babbles decrease and begins to duplicate "mama" and "papa" sounds?
- A.
16 weeks
- B.
28 weeks
- C.
20 weeks
- D.
14 weeks
- 167.At what age does the child uses words to describe past events or describe objects not present, vocabulary of 300 words.
- A.
2 years
- B.
1 year
- C.
3 years
- D.
40 weeks
- 168.At what age does the child use language to convey thoughts and look at other's points of view?
- A.
9-10 years
- B.
10-11 years
- C.
11-12 years
- D.
12-13 years
- 169.At what age does the child use every form of sentence structure and have a vocabulary of 2,500 words?
- A.
6 years
- B.
7 years
- C.
8 years
- D.
10 years
- 170.At what age does the child start to associate words with activities?
- A.
32 weeks
- B.
12-15 months
- C.
18 months
- D.
20 months
- 171.At what age does the child make sounds "guh", "buh", "p", "m", "t", and bubbling sounds?
- A.
24 weeks
- B.
22 weeks
- C.
20 weeks
- D.
29 weeks
- 172.At what age does the child make noises when spoken to?
- A.
16 weeks
- B.
10-12 weeks
- C.
24 weeks
- D.
Neonate
- 173.At what age does the child make cooing noises and squeal with delight?
- A.
20 weeks
- B.
24 weeks
- C.
26 weeks
- D.
18 weeks
- 174.At what age does the child laugh aloud and makes sounds "n, k, g, and b"?
- A.
20 weeks
- B.
6 weeks
- C.
8 weeks
- D.
16 weeks
- 175.At what age does the child have a vocabulary of 3,000 words, speech is intelligible, asks meanings of words, and enjoys telling stories?
- A.
3 years
- B.
6 years
- C.
5 years
- D.
48 weeks
- 176.At what age does the child have a vocabulary of 1,500 words, asks constant questions, and uses sentences of 4 or 5 words?
- A.
3 years
- B.
4 years
- C.
5 years
- D.
6 years
- 177.At what age does the child have a vocabulary of 1,000 words, articulates vowels clearly, talks a lot, sings and recites, and asks many questions?
- A.
3 years
- B.
4 years
- C.
5 years
- D.
2 years
- 178.At what age does the child give precise definitions and their articulation is near adult level?
- A.
7 years
- B.
10 years
- C.
11 years
- D.
8 years
- 179.At what age does the child cry when upset and make enjoyment sounds during meals?
- A.
Neonate
- B.
6 weeks
- C.
10-12 weeks
- D.
16 weeks
- 180.At what age does the child combine syllables but has trouble attributing meaning to them?
- A.
32 weeks
- B.
30 weeks
- C.
28 weeks
- D.
21 weeks
- 181.At what age does the child begin to use language in symbolic form, use meaningful words (eg. bye-bye), and their comprehension is significantly greater?
- A.
18 weeks
- B.
40 weeks
- C.
20 months
- D.
18 months
- 182.At what age do the first teeth erupt?
- A.
6 to 8 months
- B.
4 months
- C.
1 year
- D.
2 years
- 183.At birth, the infant should respond to a loud noise by what reflex?
- A.
Moro
- B.
Tonic
- C.
Prothic
- D.
None of the above
- 184.An RN sees a new nurse giving discharge instructions to a patient with Sickle Cell Disease. When should the nurse intervene?
- A.
The nurse instructs the patient to avoid tight clothing.
- B.
The nurse instructs the patient to apply cold compresses.
- C.
The nurse instructs the patient to use blankets when they feel cold.
- D.
The nurse instructs the patient to use Aspirin, Acetaminophen, and Penicillin.
- E.
The nurse instructs the patient to be on bed rest in a sitting position.
- 185.An adolescent has been diagnosed with hypercholesterolemia. Which medication would you choose to treat this patient?
- A.
Prozac
- B.
Imuron
- C.
Valium
- D.
Lipitor
- 186.An acceptable level for blood glucose in the child is what?
- A.
70-120
- B.
80-100
- C.
90-110
- D.
60-110
- 187.Although there is no known curative treatment for osteogenesis imperfect there are options available to make life more comfortable. Select all of them that apply.
- A.
Avoid trauma
- B.
Growth hormone
- C.
Make sure rugs are down on the floor for soft padding
- D.
Calcitonin
- E.
Oxygen therapy
- 188.After explaining what RSV is to the parents what would the nurse do next?
- A.
Reassure parents that the acute phase of RSV only lasts a few days after which the child will get better. It is normally rapid and complete.
- B.
Reassure parents that the acute phase of RSV only lasts a few days after which the child will get better. It is normally slow, but complete.
- C.
Make parents aware that RSV is most likely to return if the child is under 2 years of age.
- D.
Reassure the parents that they did not cause the RSV, but should take better care of their child.
- 189.After a tonsillectomy what should you avoid? Select all that apply.
- A.
Ice cream
- B.
Popsicles
- C.
Juice
- D.
Red and brown liquids
- 190.ADHD is usually discovered when?
- A.
Preschool or school-age
- B.
Adolescence
- C.
Early adulthood
- D.
Late adulthood
- 191.ADHD is more likely to be seen in which group?
- A.
Older males
- B.
Young females
- C.
Young males
- D.
Older females
- 192.A year after having a myringotomy the tubes fall out of the child's ears. What should the parent do?
- A.
Notify the HCP immediately
- B.
Cover the ears with a patch and go to the ER
- C.
Nothing because they are supposed to fall out
- D.
None of the above
- 193.A patient with hypercholesterolemia should lower their calories from fat to <30% and their mg of cholesterol a day to what?
- A.
- B.
- C.
>300
- D.
>100
- 194.A patient who just had a tonsillectomy has an increased heart rate and respiratory rate. He also is swallowing frequently, vomiting blood, clearing his throat a lot, and has increased anxiety. What does the nurse suspect?
- A.
Hemorrhage
- B.
Allergic Reaction
- C.
Increased blood pressure
- D.
None of the above
- 195.A patient reports to the ER with black and dark green stools after being constipated for a whole day. The nurse knows the patient is taking iron salts. What should she tell the patient?
- A.
I'm glad you came to the ER as this is a medical emergency!
- B.
We need to get some fluids in you because you are dehydrated!
- C.
What did you take this medication with?
- D.
This is to be expected while taking iron salts.
- 196.A patient presents to the hospital with a barrel chest, distended abdomen, paroxysmal cough, yellow-green sputum, dyspnea, cyanosis, and clubbing of the fingers and toes. What would you suspect is their diagnosis?
- A.
Pneumothorax
- B.
Hepatitis B
- C.
Cystic Fibrosis
- D.
Hemothorax
- 197.A patient presents to the ER with sudden dyspnea, wheezing, cough, chest tightening, severe bronchospasms, increased mucus secretions, and tachypnea. What do you suspect?
- A.
Status Asthmaticus
- B.
Cystic Fibrosis
- C.
Allergic Reaction
- D.
RSV
- 198.A patient presents to the ER with carditis, polyarthritis, erythema, marginatum, subcutatneous nodules, and chorea. What would you suspect?
- A.
Rheumatic Fever
- B.
Pneumonia
- C.
Polycythemia Vera
- D.
Chronic Renal Failure
- 199.A patient presents to the ER with bloody diarrhea, bowel movement urgency, abdominal pain and cramps, lower abdominal tenderness, bowel distention, rebound tenderness, arthritis, and weight loss. The nurse knows this patient most likely has what?
- A.
Ulcerative Colitis
- B.
Crohn's Disease
- C.
Appendicitis
- D.
Pancreatitis
- 200.A patient presents to the emergency room with poor weight gain, poor feeding habits, exercise intolerance, small stature, failure to thrive, murmur, dyspnea, and frequent respiratory infections. What would you suspect this client to have?
- A.
Congestive Heart Failure
- B.
Respiratory Failure in general
- C.
Anemia
- D.
Congenital Heart Defect
- 201.A patient is having brief involuntary muscular jerks of the body. What type of seizure is this describing?
- A.
Absent
- B.
Tonic-Clonic
- C.
Myoclonic
- D.
Simple Partial
- 202.A patient has been brought to the ER with easy bruising, heavy menses, and petechiae on the arms and abdomen. What do you suspect upon admission?
- A.
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP)
- B.
Hemorrhaging
- C.
Bladder cancer
- D.
CHF
- 203.A normal blood pressure reading for children 5 to 12 years of age is what?
- A.
100 to 100/56 to 60
- B.
90 to 140/60 to 90
- C.
90 to 99/60 to 65
- D.
60 to 80/40 to 50
- 204.A normal blood pressure reading for a newborn is what?
- A.
60 to 90/40 to 50
- B.
90 to 140/60 to 90
- C.
100 to 110/56 to 60
- D.
90 to 99/60 to 65
- 205.A normal blood pressure reading for a 1 to 4 year old is what?
- A.
100 to 110/56 to 60
- B.
90 to 140/60 to 90
- C.
60 to 80/40 to 50
- D.
90 to 99/60 to 65
- 206.A mother brings her infant son into the ER. The mother tells the nurse that her son has had poor weight gain for over a month, tires easily, is very irritable, has poor muscle tone, dyspnea on exertion, and has dry brittle nails. The nurse also notices that he has tachycardia and concave fingernails. What would the nurse suspect the child of having?
- A.
Iron deficiency anemia
- B.
Pernicious anemia
- C.
Hirschsprung disease
- D.
Cystic Fibrosis
- 207.A client presents to the ER with aching bones, swelling of the joints, chronic fatigue and pallor, diastolic and systolic murmurs, exertional and sometimes unexplained dyspnea, hepatomegaly, cardiomegaly, ankle ulcers, and jaundice. What do you suspect?
- A.
Sickle Cell Disease
- B.
Chronic Renal Failure
- C.
Acute Renal Failure
- D.
Glomerulonephritis
- 208.A client presents to the emergency room with severe abdominal, thoracic, muscular, and bone pain, low-grade fever, jaundice, dark urine, and damage to the spleen. What do you suspect?
- A.
Addisonian Crisis
- B.
Sickle Cell Crisis
- C.
Hemorrhage
- D.
Renal Failure
- 209.A child that has tetanus has been punctured by a nail and has been given the immune globulin. What other treatment would the nurse give at this time?
- A.
A distraction
- B.
Analgesics
- C.
Massage
- D.
Muscle relaxants
- 210.A child presents to the ER with projectile vomiting during feedings, weight loss, diminished stools, palpable olive-shaped tumor in epigastrium, peristaltic waves, distention of the upper abdomen, and dehydration. The vomiuts is blood-stained. What would you suspect?
- A.
Beginning stages of acute renal failure
- B.
Failure to Thrive
- C.
Wilms Tumor
- D.
Pyloric Stenosis
- 211.A child presents to the emergency room and is diagnosed with RSV. What type of precautions would this child be placed in?
- A.
Contact precautions in a private room or with other children with the same diagnosis
- B.
Droplet precautions in semi-private room or with other children with the same diagnosis
- C.
Neutropenic precautions in a private room or with other children with the same diagnosis
- D.
Airborne precautions in a private room with negative pressure
- 212.A child presents to the clinic with one shoulder higher than the other, a prominent scapulae, uneven waistline, poor posture, a rib hump, and an unequal length of the legs. What do you suspect?
- A.
Scoliosis
- B.
Kyphosis
- C.
Uneven lateral opening
- D.
None of the above
- 213.A child is brought to the hospital with a concussion. The caregiver will need to observe the child for vomiting or any change in LOC for how long?
- A.
At least 6 hours
- B.
At least 24 hours
- C.
At least 12 hours
- D.
One-on-one for 24 hours
- 214.A child has uneven gluteal folds and thigh creases, Galeazzi sign, limited abduction of the hip with pain, Ortolani's sign, delayed walking, limp, lordosis, and waddling gait. What does the nurse suspect is the diagnosis?
- A.
Down Syndrome
- B.
RSV
- C.
Open Fracture of the Hip
- D.
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
- 215.A child has been diagnosed with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP). What would you tell the parents about this diagnosis?
- A.
Avoid contact sports of any kind.
- B.
The child will most likely die at a young age.
- C.
Avoid all fatty foods.
- D.
Massage the patient's abdomen daily to promote blood flow.
- 216.A child diagnosed with type 1 spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman Disease) would be in what position?
- A.
Infants lies on stomach
- B.
Infant lies in decorticate position
- C.
Infant lies in decerebrate position
- D.
Infant lies in frog-leg position
- 217.A 6 month old child is brought to the hospital with poor head control, stiff arms and legs, arching the back, and has a limp body posture. What diagnosis would you suspect?
- A.
Cerebral Palsy
- B.
Scoliosis
- C.
Muscular Dystrophy
- D.
Aplastic Anemia
- 218.A 6 month old child comes into the ER with rhinorrhea, low-grade fever, cough, wheezing, and tachypnea. What do you suspect is the cause?
- A.
Bronchitis
- B.
Pneumona
- C.
Asthma
- D.
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
- 219.A 2 year old child presents to the ER with muscle weakness, large calves, waddling gait, difficulty running, scoliosis, abnormal posture, a respiratory infection, coughing, and Gower's sign. The nurse would suspect this patient of having what diagnosis?
- A.
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
- B.
Scoliosis with Atrophy
- C.
Muscular Hypertrophy
- D.
None of the above
- 220.80% of patients with Down Syndrome have what?
- A.
Hearing loss
- B.
Weight loss
- C.
Osteoporosis
- D.
Osteoarthritis
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