HIT Review Quiz 3
Settings
-
+
HIT Review Quiz 3
- 1.Which unit of measure suggests services erceived by one inpatient in one 24-hour period?
- A.
An average daily census day
- B.
An inpatient service day
- C.
The inpatient census
- D.
A unit of service day
- 2.Which meets the requirements of a "low birth weight noenate?"
- A.
5,000 grams or less
- B.
2,500 grams or less
- C.
3,500 grams or less
- D.
2,000 grams or less
- 3.Which determines whether a fetal death is reportable?
- A.
Unber of weeks of gestation at which the getus was expelled or extracted
- B.
Weight of the dead fetus upon expulsion or extraction from the mother
- C.
Lack of breathing or other evidence of life at the time of expulsion or extraction
- D.
The fact that the fetus is preterm at expulsion or extraction from the mother
- 4.Which is excluded when calculating the net autospy rate?
- A.
Inpatient deaths occurring less that 48 hours after admission
- B.
Infant deaths that occur within the acute care facility
- C.
Hospital patients whose bodies are unavailable for autopsy
- D.
Unautopsied medical examiners' cases
- 5.When compiling a long-term care facility's length of stay statistics, a 24-hour leave of absence is included
- A.
Each time the L.O.S. statistic is calculated
- B.
For inpatient oong-term care facility residents only
- C.
As determined by long-term care facility policy
- D.
If the resident was under a doctor's supervision
- 6.A hospital sends its ambulance is response to a call. The patient is DOA and is
- A.
Included in the gross death rate
- B.
Not uncluded in any patient death rates
- C.
Counted as dead under 48 hours
- D.
Registered as an outpatient
- 7.What is the ratio of inpatient service days to inpatient bed count days for a given period of time called?
- A.
Inpatient census
- B.
Percent of occupancy
- C.
Bed turnover rate
- D.
Average length of stay
- 8.Discharge days are used in computing the
- A.
Percent of occupancy
- B.
Average length of stay
- C.
Inpatient census
- D.
Gross autopsy rate
- 9.Bed turnover rate statistics measure the
- A.
Number of inpatients present
- B.
Hospital's utilization
- C.
Inpatient beds occupied
- D.
Services received by inpatients
- 10.The net death rate is the ratio of inpatient deaths during any given period of time to the total number of discharges (and deaths) during that time, and
- A.
Is a statistic that is not calculated as it does not provide useful information
- B.
Should also include deaths occuring before and after 48 hours of admission
- C.
Is called "gross death rate," also known as "hospital death rate"
- D.
Is an incorrect formula and should exclude "(and deaths)"
- 11.The major problem with comparing statistics reported by different hospitals because of differences in definitions of various terms used in compiling statistics was reduced when the American Health Information Management Association developed the
- A.
Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set
- B.
Glossary of Health Care Terms
- C.
Health Care Field Guide
- D.
L.T.C. Minimum Data Set
- 12.A neonate whose birth occurs before the end of the last day of the 38th week following the onset of the last menstrual period is termed a
- A.
Immature neonate
- B.
Post-term neonate
- C.
Preterm neonate
- D.
Term neonote
- 13.The term census is defined as the number of inpatients/residents
- A.
Occupying beds in the facility at midnight
- B.
Dischraged within a 24-hour period
- C.
Admitted withing a 240hour period
- D.
Present in the facility at any one time
- 14.The daily analysis of hospital service is based on
- A.
Admissions
- B.
Inpatients and outpatients
- C.
Discharges
- D.
Census
- 15.A man was injured in an automobile accident and brought to the emergency room of the hospital. He died in the emergency room before treatment could be started. In compiling hospital statistics, this patient would be counted as
- A.
Dead on arrival
- B.
Inpatient death
- C.
Outpatient death
- D.
Institutional death
- 16.The name of the program that the JCAHO has established for the purpose of data transmission by accredited health care facilities to the accrediting agency is called the
- A.
Accreditation Manual
- B.
Conditions of Participation
- C.
Guide to the Health Care Field
- D.
Indicator Monitoring System
- 17.Health care facility statistics about professional work performed are collected and furnished to users for a variety of reasons (e.g., for the purpose of adding nursing starff, closing a nursing unit, offering additional physical theropy services, etc.). It is essential that the facility's administrator, health information professional, and medical staff
- A.
Have a mutual understanding about the definition of terms used, data collected, and accuracy of information
- B.
Compare their health care facility statistics to those of another facility located in a different state
- C.
Utilize only the health record as the source of data for gathering statistical information at the facility
- D.
On a daily basis, question the necessity of data collection and report compliation as prepared by the facility
- 18.In computing ling-term care statistics, leaves of absence are excluded for all EXCEPT:
- A.
Inpatient service days calculations
- B.
Patient census calculations
- C.
Bed occupancy calculations
- D.
Length of stay calculation
- 19.The November 1 inpatient midnight census was 98. On November 2, seven patients were amitted, there was one fetal death as well as one DOA, and nine patients were discharged; one of the discharged patient was admitted at 7:00 A.M. and remained for 8 hours. Cacluate the inpatient service days for November 2.
- A.
96
- B.
97
- C.
98
- D.
99
- 20.The number of available inpatient beds (occupied and vacant) on a given day is called the
- A.
Inpatient bed count
- B.
Percentage of occupancy
- C.
Daily census
- D.
Inpatient bed count day
- 21.The daily census includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Inpatients/residents present at the census taking time each day
- B.
Newborns delivered that day in the acute care facility
- C.
Patients in an intensive care unit located within the hospital
- D.
Patients seen in the emergency department of the facility
- 22.In computing the gross death rate for a hospital, which would be EXCLUDED?
- A.
Deaths under 48 hours
- B.
Fetal deaths
- C.
Coroners' cases
- D.
Deaths over 48 hours
- 23.Which statistic would be used to test the validity of data?
- A.
Range
- B.
Standard deviation
- C.
T-test
- D.
Variance
- 24.When developing an in-house computerized discharged inpatient abstracting system, the facility should use the
- A.
DHHS
- B.
Delphi Technique
- C.
MUMPS
- D.
UHDDS
- 25.A baby born in the ambulance on the way to the hospital and amitted is classified as a (an)
- A.
Pediatric inpatient
- B.
Newborn patient
- C.
Newborn outpatient
- D.
Emergency patient
- 26.Distribution of Patients by Birth YearPrior to 1900 2,3311901-1925 3,3091925-1949 3,1181950-1975 4,0731976-2000 2,779What is the error in the construction of the table above?
- A.
Too few classes are represented in the table
- B.
Too many classes are represented in the table
- C.
A data item may go into more than one class
- D.
A data item may not go into more than one class
- 27.The complexity of patients treated in a facility, categorized by type and volume, is the
- A.
Census
- B.
Case-mix
- C.
Blended rate
- D.
Severity of illness
- 28.A facility's lengths of stay for the month of January include the following: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10, 13, 16 and 30. Determine the range of January's length of stay data.
- A.
6
- B.
8.8
- C.
29
- D.
97
- 29.On August 15, 13 patients were discharged. The LOS for each patient was 17, 3, 4, 25, 8, 7, 13, 10, 5, 11, 9, 21 and 1 day, respectively. The median LOS for these patients was
- A.
9.0
- B.
11.1
- C.
10.3
- D.
9.8
- 30.The lengths of stay for 10 patients discharged in one day were 15, 4, 9, 2, 469, 12, 6, 8, 8, and 11 days. Which measure would best determine thenorm for length of service in this unit?
- A.
Arithmetic mean
- B.
Mode
- C.
Median
- D.
Standard deviation
- 31.Fetal deaths are
- A.
Included in gross and net death rates
- B.
Not included in either gross or net death rate
- C.
Included in the gross death rate, not in the net death rate
- D.
Included in both gross and net death rates when delivery occurs in the hospital
- 32.Which will best ensure the quality of statistics compiled by a facility?
- A.
Inprovement in the quality of health record documentation
- B.
Calculating statistics via computer rather than manually
- C.
Increasing the number of statistical computations required by the facility
- D.
Computing statistics from secondary health records
- 33."A period in a person's life during which he is an inpatient in a single hospital without interruption except by possible intervening leaves of absence" is the definition of
- A.
Inpatient admission
- B.
Inpatient hopitalization
- C.
Hospital inpatient
- D.
Nursing facility inpatient
- 34.The minimum common core of data required on hospital Medicare/Medicaid patients is the
- A.
Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set
- B.
Uniform Patient Discharge Data Set
- C.
Medicare/medicaid Patient Discharge Data Set
- D.
Medicare/medicaid Hospital Data Set
- 35.Copies of vital certificates are ultimately forwarded to the
- A.
National Center for Disease Control
- B.
Workd Health Organization
- C.
Federal Office of Vital Statistics
- D.
National Center for Health Statistics
- 36.The AHA publishes an annual survey of hospitals in order to produce the
- A.
Accreditation Manual for Hospitals
- B.
Hospital Survey Profile
- C.
Guide to the Health Care Field
- D.
Directory of Residency Training Programs
- 37.When personnel visit a hospital nursing station to collect data from inpatient health records, this is called
- A.
Retrospective review
- B.
Concurrent review
- C.
Discharge analysis
- D.
Service analysis
- 38.In any computerized data collection system
- A.
There is actuallytoo much data collected to provide accurate reporting mechanisms
- B.
Computerized information processing requires quality control checks to be performed
- C.
There is never enough data collected to provide optimal reliability in computations
- D.
Accuracy of data collected is consistent with the number of people collecting data
- 39.Which graphical presentation type always depicts percentages?
- A.
Bar graph
- B.
Pie graph
- C.
Histogram
- D.
Line graph
- 40.Nursing personnel have recently been required to input TPR (temperature, pulse, and respiration) data into the facility's computerized health record system. To get the nursing staff to realize the value of the computerized input of data, you have convinced the computer center to crate an onscreen graphical display of this information. Because TPR information is input continuously on each patient, which would be the best choice for displaying the information?
- A.
Pie chart
- B.
Line graph
- C.
Rate/ratio
- D.
Variance
- 41.Upon analysis of the increased incidence of heart disease cases in a particular region of the country, the epidemiologist prepared a report including recommendations as to the need for additional preventive measures with reguard to teh disease. The incidence of heart disease cases is the number of
- A.
Heart disease cases receiving treatment within the population
- B.
Newly diagnosed heart disease cases last year within the population
- C.
Known heart disease cases at the present time within the population
- D.
Current heart disease cases who need medical and social care to cope
- 42.In general, graphs
- A.
Have less appeal than tables of numerical listings
- B.
Are extremely complex in presentation
- C.
Should contain as much information as possible
- D.
Help the raeder understand information more quickly
- 43.A study that can be repeated with the same results in considered to be
- A.
Valid
- B.
Sound
- C.
Reliable
- D.
Cogent
- 44.When gathering data about pediatric patients age 13 or younger, it would be best to
- A.
Classify them as pediatric patients only if cared for by an organized medical staff unit of pedatrics
- B.
Allow each medical staff service (e.g., general practice, internal medicine, etc.) to determine the age to be used
- C.
Used the broadest grouping of ages whenever possible when gathering information on this patient population
- D.
Comply with federal regulations dictating that pediactic patient data be gathered separately from adult data
- 45.The hospital's governing board is to determine whether the facility should expand its inpatient bed capacity. Which statistical information would best assist the governing board in its decision making?
- A.
Hospital discharge days
- B.
Daily inpatient census
- C.
Average length of stay
- D.
Percent of occupancy
- 46.One way to determine the validity of data collected in an empirical study would be to use a statistical measure such as a (an)
- A.
Mean
- B.
T-test
- C.
Table
- D.
Variance
- 47.It would be appropriate to use a bar graph to present data if
- A.
The categories of data displayed are not continuous
- B.
Numerical data are first converted to percentages before displaying it
- C.
The data presented must be adjacent to each other on the graph
- D.
Data are represented by dots placed over midpoints on the display
- 48.The heatlh record of a hospital patient is the property of the
- A.
Patient
- B.
Attending physician
- C.
Health information management
- D.
Hospital
- 49.Microfilmed records may be submitted as primary evidence.
- A.
Always
- B.
Only if the original health record has been destroyed
- C.
Only if the court has the facilities to reproduce the microfilm in hard copy
- D.
Never
- 50.When the patient sues the physician, privileged communication is
- A.
Extended
- B.
Continued
- C.
Voided
- D.
Promoted
- 51.If a hospital is sued by a patient, the patient's health record may be released to the hospital attorney
- A.
Only upon receipt of a subpoena duces tecum
- B.
Only upon receipt of the patient's authorization
- C.
Only upon receipt of a written authorization from the hospital administrator
- D.
Without authorization or subpoena duces tecum
- 52.All of the following might be a problem associated with an authorization to release information EXCEPT:
- A.
Authoriations to release "any and all" information
- B.
Authorizations signed retrospectively
- C.
Authorizations signed prospectively
- D.
Release of information by the recipient
- 53.A health information practitioner as a witness is qualified to answer all of the following questions EXCEPT:
- A.
Who was responsible for compiling each part of the record
- B.
The advisability of the treatment provided the patient
- C.
Whether the record was kept as part of the hospital's regular order of business
- D.
What the components of the record are
- 54.All of the following might be construed as tampering with an entry in the health record EXCEPT:
- A.
Writing over the entry
- B.
Erasing the entry
- C.
Adding marginal notes to the entry
- D.
Writing over a spelling error in the entry
- 55.
- A.
No information except dates and admission and discharge
- B.
No information at all from their employees' records
- C.
Any and all information, provided they will be paying for hospital treatment
- D.
No information except identifying information and the prognosis
- 56.As director of the health information management department, you receive a subpoena duces tecum for the minutes of the hospital's Surgical Review Committee. In the absence of a hospital policy to guide you, you should
- A.
Honor the subpoena
- B.
Inform the hospital attorney before honoring the subpoena
- C.
Inform the subpoena server that the subpoena must be served on the chairman of the tussue committee
- D.
Inform the Chief of Staff
- 57.Of the following answers, which one contains a requestor who is NOT required to submit the patient's written authorization or obtain a court order before medical information is released from the patient's health record? (The patient was treated for a myocardial infarction.)
- A.
Internal Revenue Service, Veterans Administration, county welfare department, attourneys, the police
- B.
The hospital's Quality Management Committee,, commercial health insurance companies, the patient's employer, a life insurance company to which the patient has applied for life insurance
- C.
The Federal Bureau of Investigation, county sheriff's office, office of the district attorney
- D.
The local office of the Public Helath Department, the local medical society, the patient's spouse, a physician who last treated the patient 3 years ago
- 58.A document that requires a person to appear at the designated time is termed a (an)
- A.
Subpoena
- B.
Subpoena duces tecum
- C.
Primary evidence
- D.
Attorney's subpoena
- 59.
- A.
Always
- B.
Never
- C.
Only if a second attorney is representing the patient's physician in a malpractice case
- D.
If the second attorney has the patient's authorization
- 60.A written authorization for release of information from the health record of a phychiatric patient might be signed by the patient's
- A.
Attending physician
- B.
Attorney
- C.
Legal representative
- D.
Next of kin
- 61.The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur can be illustrated in which of the following cases?
- A.
A surgeon nicking a ureter during tubal ligation
- B.
A surgeon performing an appendectomy on a patient found after surgery to have a normal appendix
- C.
A surgeon leaving a surgical instrument in the body unintentionally
- D.
A nurse neglecting to give postoperative pain medication as ordered
- 62.The theory of respondeat superior would apply in which of the following situations?
- A.
When a hospital medical technologist is negligent, the atteding physician can be held liable
- B.
When the attending physician is negligent, the hospital can be held liable
- C.
When a hospital nurse is negligent, the director of nursing services (or equivalent) can be held liable
- D.
When a hospital pharmacist is negligent, the hospital can be liable
- 63.In most states, the final court of appeals is called the
- A.
Supreme Court or Court of Appeals
- B.
District Appeals Court
- C.
Justice's Court
- D.
Circuit Court
- 64.Upon receipt of a subpoena duces tecum, which of the following should be removed from the health record?
- A.
Correspondence
- B.
Consent forms
- C.
Nurses' notes
- D.
Graphic reports
- 65.The physician has
- A.
The right to restrict release of information from the health record
- B.
The right to remove health records from the hospital
- C.
No legal right to the health record
- D.
The right to restrict the use of his or her records in quality management activity
- 66.An incident report should be
- A.
Destroyed within a week of the incident
- B.
Kept with the health records
- C.
Kept separate from the health records
- D.
Kept in the health record but removed if the record is subpoenaed
- 67.A person who is 17 years old, married, and living apart from his parents should have an authorization for release of information from his health record signed by
- A.
Himself
- B.
Either of his parents
- C.
His wife
- D.
Either himself or his wife
- 68.A person against whom an action is brought in a lawsuit is the
- A.
Appellee
- B.
Plaintiff
- C.
Bailiff
- D.
Defendant
- 69.Placing health records on computer results in increasing the problems related to
- A.
Maintaining a timely record
- B.
Providing a physical record that can be used in court
- C.
The number of persons having access to confidential information
- D.
Placing the record on microfilm
- 70.What a reasonably prudent person would have done under similar circumstances is termed the
- A.
Duty of the provider
- B.
Standard of care
- C.
Patient-physician privilege
- D.
Common law
- 71.Refusing to honor a subpoena can result in
- A.
Being considered in comtempt of court
- B.
Judicial fines being imposed
- C.
Arrest
- D.
Another subpoena being issued
- 72.In the absence of specific regulations, a guideline for the retention of records established jointly by the American Medical Association and the American Health Information Management Association is to keep records for how many years beyond the most recent episode of care?
- A.
15
- B.
10
- C.
7
- D.
25
- 73.The patient whose life is threatened and who is comatose is assumed to give what kind of consent for life-sustaining treatment?
- A.
Informed
- B.
Express
- C.
Direct
- D.
Implied
- 74.The responsibility for securing informed consent to operate rests primarlity with the
- A.
Admitting office
- B.
Surgeon
- C.
Operating room supervisory nurse
- D.
Unit nurse
- 75.The touching of an individual in a way that is unsettling, provoking, or physically injurious without that individual's consent is called
- A.
Assault
- B.
Willful bodily harm
- C.
Battery
- D.
Malpractice
- 76.Health records might be held to be inadmissiable if the court ruled that they were
- A.
Hearsay evidence
- B.
Primary evidence
- C.
Circumstantial evidence
- D.
Business records
- 77.The document that gives the defendant or plaintiff a detailed statement of the plaintiff's claim or the defense of the defendant is called the
- A.
Motion
- B.
Examination before trial
- C.
Bill of particulars
- D.
Summons
- 78.A court of original jurisdiction is one in which
- A.
Cases are brought before being referred to the state level
- B.
Cases and special proceedings are tried
- C.
Cases brought from appellate courts are heard
- D.
Only federal cases are heard
- 79.The information in the health record is owned by the
- A.
Patient
- B.
Attending physician
- C.
Health information management
- D.
Hospital
- 80.An attorney, with proper authorization from a patient, obtains a copy of the patient's health record. The attorney then releases a copy of the record to a second attorney. This practice is called
- A.
Rerelease
- B.
Redisclosure
- C.
Retrospective release
- D.
Secondary release
- 81.A subpoena issued by an attorney
- A.
Can be ignored at the discretion of the hospital attorney
- B.
Must be obeyed
- C.
Must be countersigned by a judge
- D.
Must be contersigned by the clerk of the court or a judge
- 82.The party who commences a lawsuit is the
- A.
Defendant
- B.
Appellant
- C.
Contestee
- D.
Plaintiff
- 83.The legal theories that may be used to support a suit for damages for the unauthorized disclosure of information included all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Defamation
- B.
Breach of confidentiality
- C.
Invasion of privacy
- D.
Invalidation of consent
- 84.If a patient has a primary disgnosis of alcoholism, which of the following information items may be released without his or her consent
- A.
Admission and discharge dates only
- B.
Name only
- C.
Name, address, age, sex, and attending physician only
- D.
No information, including the fact that he or she was treated at the facility
- 85.When preparing a health record in response to a subpoena duces tecum, all of the following should be done EXCEPT:
- A.
Each page should be numbered
- B.
Each page should be checked to make sure that it contains the patient's name and health record number
- C.
The record should be read to see if there is a possibility of a malpractice suit
- D.
The attending physician should be notified
- 86.A written patient authorization should contain all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
The signature of the person requesting the information
- B.
The signature of the patient or authorized representative allowing release of information
- C.
The purpose of or need for the information
- D.
The name of the person or institution that is to receive the information
- 87.Consent for the release of information about a minor is generally required of the
- A.
Patient
- B.
Physician
- C.
Parent
- D.
Parent or legal guardian
- 88.The physician-patient privilege belongs to
- A.
The patient
- B.
The physician
- C.
Both the patient and the physician
- D.
Either the patient or the physician, depending on the circumstances
- 89.A subpoena should be refused in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
- A.
When the signature of the patient is not present on the subpoena
- B.
When the date, time, and place of appearance are not stated on the subpoena
- C.
When the signature of the official empowered to issue the subpoena is not present on the subpoena
- D.
When the seal of the court is not present on the subpoena
- 90.A request made to a health information management practitioner by a patient to amend a health record should be referred to
- A.
The patient's physician
- B.
The hospital's attorney
- C.
The hospital administrator
- D.
The Chief of Staff
- 91.All of the following should be part of informed consent for a procedure EXCEPT:
- A.
Reasonably foreseeable risks of performing the procedure
- B.
Cost of the procedure
- C.
Complications or side effects
- D.
Anticipated results if the procedure is not performed
- 92.If a physicain does not approve of the history and physical report done by a resident, he or she can do any of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Remove the history and physical report from the record
- B.
Hand-correct the report
- C.
Add a history and physical of his or her own
- D.
Refuse to countersign the report until the resident corrects it
- 93.A subpoena duces tecum for a phychiatric record should be
- A.
Complied with
- B.
Refursed
- C.
Referred to the Chief of Staff
- D.
Referred to the hospital attorney
- 94.What is a law called that limits the period of time during which an action may be brought against another party?
- A.
Summons
- B.
Litigation
- C.
Common law
- D.
Statute of limitations
- 95.Release of information in response to appropriate telephone requests should be made only after
- A.
The callers' identity is verified
- B.
Contacting the patient
- C.
Contacting the attending physician
- D.
Contacting the hospital administrator
- 96.Failure to obtain consent to a medical or surgical procedure might result in an action against the physician for
- A.
Battery
- B.
Negligence
- C.
Invasion of privacy
- D.
Intent
- 97.Defamation includes
- A.
Assault and battery
- B.
Libel and slander
- C.
Negligence and unauthorized disclosure
- D.
Uninformed consent
- 98.A daily government publication where proposed federal regulations can be found is the
- A.
Federal Register
- B.
Common Law Review
- C.
Federal Regulation Register
- D.
Register of Federal Regulation
- 99.The medical examiner or coroner would need to provide an authorization to release information from the next of kin or legal representative to perform an autopsy
- A.
Never
- B.
Always
- C.
Only if the deceased were a minor
- D.
Only if death was not a bona fide coroner's case
- 100.Which of the following could be considered a possible case of negligence?
- A.
A pedestrian ignores a stranger who is the victim of a hit-and-run driver
- B.
A hospital patient suffers a broken hip when falling on a wet floor near his room
- C.
A patient refuses to remain in the hospital, signs forms indicating his consent to release against medical advice, and sufferes a heart attack in the hospital's ambulance on the way home
- D.
A hospital refuses to release a patient until she has arranged for medical insurance to coer her hospital expenses
- 101.A tort is a wrongful
- A.
Civil act that is not based on a contract violation
- B.
Criminal act involving a health professional and a patient
- C.
Criminal act involving negligence on the part of a physician
- D.
Civil act based on the breaking of an oral contract
- 102.A person may be required by subpoena to answer questions under oath prior to a trial. The question-and-answer session is called
- A.
Pretrial discovery
- B.
Discovery court order
- C.
Examination before trial
- D.
Summons
- 103.The rule that requires that where it is necessary to prove the contents of a paper, the original must be produced or its absence accounted for is called
- A.
The best evidence rule
- B.
Res ipsa loquitur
- C.
The judicial notice rule
- D.
Original evidence
- 104.The patient, age 17, is to have an appendectomy. He is the son of divorced parents, has been sdopted by his grandmother, and is married. Who should sign the operative permit?
- A.
Wife
- B.
Grandmother
- C.
Patient
- D.
Either parent
- 105.The term that applies to evidence that may be peroperly received and cinsidered in a legal proceeding is
- A.
Best evidence
- B.
Testimony
- C.
Demonstrative evidence
- D.
Admissibility
- 106.A legal action to unauthorized autopsy in a hospital would be brought against the
- A.
Hospital pathologist
- B.
Attending physician
- C.
Hospital pathologist and the hospital
- D.
Attending physician and the hospital pathologist
- 107.In order to verify HIPPA security provisions are met, an organization should have a
- A.
Chain-of-Trust Partner Agreement
- B.
Business Continuity Plan
- C.
Certification of Compliance
- D.
Information Access Control Plan
Back to top